Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes the concept of shared governance?

• A. Top-down management
• B. Nurse-led committees
• C. Shared decision making
• D. Hierarchical structure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Shared decision making.' Shared governance in healthcare involves empowering nurses to participate in decision-making processes that affect their practice. This model fosters collaboration, transparency, and accountability among healthcare providers. Choice A, 'Top-down management,' is incorrect because shared governance promotes a bottom-up approach. Choice B, 'Nurse-led committees,' is partially correct as it is a component of shared governance, but the core concept is broader and encompasses shared decision making beyond committee leadership. Choice D, 'Hierarchical structure,' is incorrect as shared governance aims to flatten hierarchies and distribute decision-making authority among healthcare team members.

2. The nurse has administered 4 oz of orange juice to an alert patient whose blood glucose was 62 mg/dL. Fifteen minutes later, the blood glucose is 67 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice.
• B. Administer the PRN glucagon (Glucagon) 1 mg IM.
• C. Have the patient eat some peanut butter with crackers.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider about the hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice. The patient's blood glucose has increased from 62 mg/dL to 67 mg/dL after consuming the initial 4 oz of orange juice, indicating that the treatment is effective. Providing additional orange juice will help further raise the blood glucose levels. Administering glucagon (Choice B) is not necessary as the patient's blood glucose is already rising. Having the patient eat peanut butter with crackers (Choice C) is a slower-acting option compared to orange juice. Notifying the healthcare provider about the hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the patient's blood glucose is improving.

3. The nurse is taking a health history from a 29-year-old pregnant patient at the first prenatal visit. The patient reports no personal history of diabetes but has a parent who is diabetic. Which action will the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Teach the patient about administering regular insulin.
• B. Schedule the patient for a fasting blood glucose level.
• C. Discuss an oral glucose tolerance test for the twenty-fourth week of pregnancy.
• D. Provide teaching about an increased risk for fetal problems with gestational diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Given the family history of diabetes, the initial action the nurse should take is to schedule the patient for a fasting blood glucose level. This will help in assessing if the patient has developed gestational diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because teaching about administering regular insulin is premature without confirming the diagnosis. Choice C is incorrect as an oral glucose tolerance test is typically done earlier in pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as discussing fetal problems related to gestational diabetes should come after a confirmed diagnosis.

4. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

5. What is the term for working on a schedule within the unit, involving only those who are working within that unit?

• A. Flexible staffing
• B. Self-staffing
• C. Internal pools
• D. Management scheduling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, self-staffing. Self-staffing is the model where staff entirely manage staffing and scheduling themselves, without external involvement. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible staffing refers to adjusting staffing levels based on demand. Internal pools involve a group of staff who can be drawn upon for scheduling needs. Management scheduling typically involves supervisors or managers creating and managing schedules for the unit.

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