Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a patient with major depression at the county clinic. Since the patient has a mild intellectual disability, the nurse would question which classification of antidepressant drugs:

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are less suitable for patients with intellectual disabilities due to the need for dietary restrictions and close monitoring. These restrictions can be challenging for patients with mild intellectual disabilities to follow, making this drug class a concern for this patient population.

2. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?

• A. Screening a group of males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms.
• B. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 with substance use issues.
• C. Providing coping skills information to a group aged 45 to 55.
• D. Educating parents of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on early intervention importance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.

3. A client has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is having nightmares about the event. The client reports difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the event during the day.
• B. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol.
• C. Administer a prescribed sedative at bedtime.
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with the client's therapist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take is to encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event during the day. This approach can assist the client in processing the trauma in a controlled environment, potentially reducing the frequency and intensity of nightmares. It allows for emotional expression and may promote better sleep by addressing the underlying psychological distress associated with PTSD. Encouraging the client to talk about the event during the day promotes therapeutic processing of the trauma and emotional expression, which can lead to improved coping mechanisms and potentially decrease the distressing symptoms like nightmares. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol may be beneficial, but addressing the emotional aspects first is crucial. Administering a sedative should not be the first approach, as it does not address the root cause of the nightmares. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the therapist is important but should follow addressing the immediate distressing symptoms and promoting coping strategies.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
• D. Discourage verbalization of feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode include encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discussing feelings is an essential part of therapy for clients with bipolar disorder, thus discouraging verbalization of feelings is not therapeutic and should not be implemented. Choice D is incorrect because it goes against the principles of therapeutic communication and emotional expression, which are crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

5. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is being discharged. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Practice relaxation techniques daily
• B. Avoid caffeine and alcohol
• C. Engage in regular physical activity
• D. Use benzodiazepines as the first line of treatment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When discharging a client with GAD, it is important to provide instructions that promote holistic well-being and support without exacerbating the condition. Practicing relaxation techniques daily, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, and engaging in regular physical activity can help manage anxiety symptoms effectively. These strategies focus on self-care and healthy lifestyle choices. Seeking support from friends and family also plays a crucial role in maintaining mental health. However, using benzodiazepines as the first line of treatment is not recommended due to their potential for dependence and other associated risks. Non-pharmacological interventions and therapy are usually preferred as initial approaches in managing GAD. Therefore, the option 'D: Use benzodiazepines as the first line of treatment' is incorrect and should not be included in the discharge teaching for a client with GAD.

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