Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is being assessed by a healthcare professional. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Delusions of grandeur
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors
• D. Periods of excessive sleeping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hypervigilance is a common symptom. Hypervigilance refers to a state of increased alertness, awareness, and sensitivity to potential threats or danger. This heightened state of vigilance can manifest as being easily startled, having difficulty relaxing or sleeping, and constantly scanning the environment for signs of danger. It is an adaptive response to the trauma experienced and can significantly impact the individual's daily functioning. The other options are not typically associated with PTSD. Delusions of grandeur are more commonly seen in certain psychiatric disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not PTSD. Periods of excessive sleeping may be seen in conditions like depression, but they are not a hallmark symptom of PTSD.

2. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mindfulness meditation.' Side effects of antipsychotic medications include tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Mindfulness meditation is not a side effect of antipsychotic medications. Choices A, B, and D are all potential side effects of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medication. Hyperglycemia can occur as a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, particularly the second-generation ones.

3. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?

• A. The client and healthcare provider form a partnership that is challenging for the family to disrupt.
• B. A collaborative approach to treatment planning ensures that both physical and emotional needs will be addressed.
• C. Involving the client in decision-making enhances the feeling of control and fosters cooperation.
• D. Permission for refeeding is crucial as it can have adverse effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.

4. During a manic episode, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage group activities to increase socialization.
• B. Provide a structured environment with limited stimuli.
• C. Allow the patient to engage in physical activities freely.
• D. Give the patient detailed and complex tasks to complete.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals may experience heightened energy levels and reduced impulse control. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach helps reduce excessive stimulation and potential triggers for further escalation of manic behavior. It promotes a calming and controlled setting, assisting in managing symptoms and promoting the patient's well-being. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may lead to overstimulation, allowing the patient to engage in physical activities freely (Choice C) could be risky due to impulsivity, and giving detailed tasks (Choice D) might overwhelm the individual.

5. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

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