Nursing Elites

1. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. The nurse understands that buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it:

• A. Has a high potential for abuse.
• B. Works immediately to relieve anxiety.
• C. Does not cause sedation.
• D. Is used for short-term treatment only.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it does not cause sedation. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone has a lower potential for abuse and does not cause the sedative effects commonly seen with benzodiazepines. While benzodiazepines may work immediately to relieve anxiety, buspirone may take longer to show its therapeutic effects. Additionally, buspirone is not limited to short-term treatment only, making it a preferred choice in patients where sedation is a concern or in those with a history of substance abuse.

2. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

3. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?

• A. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
• B. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
• C. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
• D. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client's life. However, susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be accurately estimated without considering the individual's coping resources and available support systems. Positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can mitigate the risk of stress-related illnesses even in the face of significant life changes and losses. Choice A is incorrect because it makes a definitive statement about the client's state without considering individual coping mechanisms and support. Choice B is incorrect because a score of 110 does not necessarily mean no threat of stress-related illness, as individual factors play a crucial role. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes a positive outlook without acknowledging the potential impact of the experienced losses on stress levels.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the provider expect? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Avoidance of reminders of the trauma
• C. Increased arousal and hypervigilance
• D. Manic episodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by various symptoms, including flashbacks, avoidance of reminders of the trauma, increased arousal, and hypervigilance. Additionally, individuals with PTSD often experience negative changes in thoughts and mood. Manic episodes, which are periods of abnormally elevated mood and energy, are not typically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Manic episodes.' Choices A, B, and C are all common findings in individuals with PTSD.

5. A client is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and a nurse is planning care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse exclude from the care plan?

• A. Allowing the client to perform rituals initially
• B. Discouraging the client from washing their hands
• C. Monitoring for suicidal ideation
• D. Providing a structured schedule of activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for suicidal ideation. When caring for a client with OCD, interventions should include allowing the client to perform rituals initially, setting limits on the time allowed for rituals, encouraging the client to verbalize feelings, and providing a structured schedule of activities. Monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial in assessing the client's safety and mental health status, but it is not a direct intervention specific to managing OCD symptoms.

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