a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed fluoxetine prozac which information should the nurse include
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ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What information should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking fluoxetine (Prozac) due to potential interactions. Alcohol consumption can increase the risk of certain side effects and may reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine is usually taken daily regardless of the client's mood. Choice D is not the priority teaching point; while reporting side effects is important, avoiding alcohol is critical due to the potential interactions.

2. To provide effective care for the patient diagnosed with schizophrenia, the nurse should frequently assess for which associated condition? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Schizophrenia is often associated with comorbid conditions such as alcohol use disorder, major depressive disorder, polydipsia, and metabolic syndrome. Stomach cancer is not a common associated condition with schizophrenia and would not be a typical focus of assessment in managing a patient with this mental health disorder.

3. Which should the healthcare provider recognize as a DSM-5 disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The DSM-5 categorizes mental health disorders for diagnostic purposes. Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the disorders listed in the DSM-5, characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various events or activities. This disorder falls under the category of anxiety disorders, which also include panic disorder, phobias, and others. Choices A, C, and D are not DSM-5 disorders. Obesity and hypertension are medical conditions, while grief, though a significant emotional response, is not classified as a mental health disorder in the DSM-5.

4. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delusions of grandeur. Clients with paranoid schizophrenia often experience delusions of grandeur or persecution, auditory hallucinations, and a flat affect. However, the most characteristic finding for paranoid schizophrenia is the presence of delusions, which are fixed false beliefs that are not based in reality. Delusions of grandeur, where individuals believe they are exceptionally powerful or important, are commonly seen in paranoid schizophrenia. Choice A, auditory hallucinations, are more commonly associated with other types of schizophrenia such as paranoid or disorganized schizophrenia. Choice C, a flat affect, is a symptom that can be seen across various types of schizophrenia. Choice D, disorganized speech, is more indicative of disorganized schizophrenia.

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