Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What information should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication only when feeling depressed.
• D. Report any unusual side effects to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking fluoxetine (Prozac) due to potential interactions. Alcohol consumption can increase the risk of certain side effects and may reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine is usually taken daily regardless of the client's mood. Choice D is not the priority teaching point; while reporting side effects is important, avoiding alcohol is critical due to the potential interactions.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Increase intake of caffeinated beverages.
• C. Maintain consistent sodium intake.
• D. Follow a low-protein diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with bipolar disorder prescribed lithium is to maintain consistent sodium intake. Fluctuations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to advise the client to keep their sodium intake consistent to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the lithium therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not directly related to lithium therapy. Increasing intake of caffeinated beverages can interfere with the action of lithium. Following a low-protein diet is not a standard recommendation for clients prescribed lithium.

3. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

4. Maggie, a child in protective custody, is found to have an imaginary friend, Holly. Her foster family shares this information with the nurse. The nurse teaches the family members about children who have suffered trauma and knows her teaching was effective when the foster mother states:

• A. I understand that imaginary friends are abnormal.
• B. I understand that imaginary friends are a maladaptive behavior.
• C. I understand that imaginary friends are a coping mechanism.
• D. I understand that we should tell the child that imaginary friends are unacceptable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Imaginary friends can serve as a coping mechanism for children, especially those who have experienced trauma. They can provide comfort and a sense of control in challenging situations. Acknowledging and supporting the child's imaginary friend can be beneficial in their emotional healing and development.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Social inhibition
• B. Fear of criticism
• C. Desire for close relationships
• D. Fear of abandonment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with avoidant personality disorder commonly display social inhibition and a fear of criticism or rejection. While they may have a desire for close relationships, they tend to avoid them due to their fear of disapproval and negative evaluation by others. Fear of criticism (Choice B) is also a characteristic behavior seen in individuals with avoidant personality disorder. However, the primary behavior associated with this disorder is social inhibition (Choice A), where individuals tend to be reserved and avoid social interactions. Desiring close relationships (Choice C) may be present, but the fear of rejection typically prevents individuals from pursuing these relationships. Fear of abandonment (Choice D) is more commonly associated with borderline personality disorder rather than avoidant personality disorder.

Similar Questions