which should the nurse recognize as a dsm 5 disorder
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which should the healthcare provider recognize as a DSM-5 disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The DSM-5 categorizes mental health disorders for diagnostic purposes. Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the disorders listed in the DSM-5, characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various events or activities. This disorder falls under the category of anxiety disorders, which also include panic disorder, phobias, and others. Choices A, C, and D are not DSM-5 disorders. Obesity and hypertension are medical conditions, while grief, though a significant emotional response, is not classified as a mental health disorder in the DSM-5.

2. Which assessment question asked by the nurse demonstrates an understanding of comorbid mental health conditions associated with major depressive disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Questions about anxiety management, disordered eating, and alcohol use are relevant to identifying comorbid conditions with major depressive disorder, but the question 'Do rules apply to you?' does not directly address common comorbid mental health conditions associated with major depressive disorder.

3. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

4. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the education provided about the antidepressant medication sertraline (Zoloft)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. It is crucial for clients to understand that sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to show its full effects. Patients should be informed about this delay in onset of action to set realistic expectations and adhere to the treatment plan. This education helps prevent premature discontinuation of the medication due to perceived lack of efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because sertraline (Zoloft) should be taken with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Choice D is inaccurate as there are specific medications that should be avoided with sertraline, but a general statement to avoid all other medications is overly broad and not necessary.

5. A client diagnosed with OCD spends hours bathing and grooming. During a one-on-one interaction, the client discusses the rituals in detail but avoids any feelings that the rituals generate. Which defense mechanism should the nurse identify?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intellectualization is a defense mechanism where an individual focuses on rational, logical explanations to distance themselves from uncomfortable emotions. In this scenario, the client discusses the OCD rituals in a detailed and analytical manner, avoiding the emotional aspects associated with them. This behavior reflects intellectualization rather than dissociation, rationalization, or sublimation. Dissociation involves a disconnection from reality, rationalization is the attempt to justify behaviors, and sublimation is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.

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