Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. A male patient calls to tell the nurse that his monthly lithium level is 1.7 mEq/L. Which nursing intervention will the nurse implement initially?

• A. Reinforce that the level is above the therapeutic range.
• B. Instruct the patient to hold the next dose of medication and contact the prescriber.
• C. Advise the patient to go to the hospital emergency room immediately.
• D. Inform the patient about the possibility of seizures and appropriate precautions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lithium level of 1.7 mEq/L is above the therapeutic range, indicating a potential risk of toxicity. The initial nursing intervention should be to instruct the patient to hold the next dose of medication and promptly contact the prescriber for further guidance and management. This action aims to prevent adverse effects and ensure the patient's safety by addressing the elevated lithium level appropriately.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing her hands. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client reduce this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to set a time limit for washing hands.
• B. Encourage the client to wash hands only when necessary.
• C. Encourage the client to use hand sanitizer instead of washing.
• D. Encourage the client to explore the reasons behind the hand washing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting a time limit for hand washing is an effective intervention in managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) symptoms. By establishing boundaries around the behavior, the client can gradually work towards reducing the excessive hand washing and regaining control over the compulsion. Choice B is not as effective because it does not address the underlying compulsion. Choice C may not be helpful as it may not satisfy the client's need for cleanliness and could reinforce the behavior. Choice D, while important in therapy, may not be the most immediate intervention needed to address the excessive hand washing behavior.

4. Which of the following are potential side effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Short-term memory loss
• B. Headache
• C. Confusion
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potential side effects of ECT include short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, particularly antipsychotics that block dopamine receptors over time. ECT is primarily used for severe depression, bipolar disorder, and certain psychotic disorders. The other choices, short-term memory loss, headache, and confusion, are known side effects of ECT and are usually short-term and manageable.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
• D. Discourage verbalization of feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Interventions for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode include encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discussing feelings is an essential part of therapy for clients with bipolar disorder, thus discouraging verbalization of feelings is not therapeutic and should not be implemented. Choice D is incorrect because it goes against the principles of therapeutic communication and emotional expression, which are crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

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