Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. During cognitive-behavioral therapy, a 12-year-old patient reports to the nurse practitioner:

• A. I was so mad I wanted to hit my mother.
• B. I thought that everyone at school hated me. That's not true. Most people like me and I have a friend named Todd.
• C. I forgot that you told me to breathe when I become angry.
• D. I scream as loud as I can when the train goes by the house.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy, recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is crucial for progress. Choice B demonstrates the patient's ability to identify and correct distorted thoughts, indicating positive advancement in therapy. This cognitive restructuring is a key component of cognitive-behavioral therapy, helping individuals develop healthier thinking patterns and coping strategies.

3. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing treatment with an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly utilized for this condition?

• A. Fluoxetine
• B. Citalopram
• C. Paroxetine
• D. Escitalopram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed for obsessive-compulsive disorder due to its efficacy in managing OCD symptoms. While different SSRIs may be used based on individual patient response and tolerability, Paroxetine stands out as a well-established option for treating OCD. Fluoxetine (Choice A) is another SSRI commonly used for OCD, but Paroxetine is more commonly associated with this indication. Citalopram (Choice B) and Escitalopram (Choice D) are also SSRIs but are not typically the first choice for treating OCD.

4. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Continue taking medications as prescribed
• B. Avoid all social interactions
• C. Report any side effects of medications to the healthcare provider
• D. Develop a daily routine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge instructions for a client diagnosed with schizophrenia should focus on promoting medication adherence, monitoring and reporting any medication side effects, and establishing a structured daily routine to support stability and well-being. Encouraging the client to avoid all social interactions is not appropriate as social support can be beneficial for individuals with schizophrenia. Social interactions can help reduce feelings of isolation, improve overall well-being, and provide emotional support. Therefore, advising the client to avoid all social interactions would not be in the best interest of their recovery and management of the condition.

5. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

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