Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed paroxetine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Weight loss
• C. Sexual dysfunction
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Sexual dysfunction.' Paroxetine, an SSRI commonly prescribed for OCD, can lead to sexual dysfunction as a side effect. Patients should be educated about this potential adverse effect to ensure they are aware and can seek appropriate management if needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because insomnia, weight loss, and hypertension are not typically associated with paroxetine use as common side effects in patients with OCD.

3. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

4. Which of the following interventions are appropriate for a client experiencing a panic attack? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Stay with the client and remain calm
• B. Encourage deep breathing
• C. Move the client to a quiet environment
• D. Mindfulness meditation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, it is crucial to provide immediate support to the client. Appropriate interventions include staying with the client and remaining calm, encouraging deep breathing, and moving the client to a quiet environment. However, mindfulness meditation, which involves focusing on the present moment and may require a certain level of concentration, may not be feasible or effective during an acute panic attack. The priority is to help the client feel safe and supported, which the other interventions address more directly. Mindfulness meditation might not be suitable during a panic attack due to the heightened state of anxiety and the need for immediate calming techniques.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Continue taking medications as prescribed
• B. Avoid all social interactions
• C. Report any side effects of medications to the healthcare provider
• D. Develop a daily routine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge instructions for a client diagnosed with schizophrenia should focus on promoting medication adherence, monitoring and reporting any medication side effects, and establishing a structured daily routine to support stability and well-being. Encouraging the client to avoid all social interactions is not appropriate as social support can be beneficial for individuals with schizophrenia. Social interactions can help reduce feelings of isolation, improve overall well-being, and provide emotional support. Therefore, advising the client to avoid all social interactions would not be in the best interest of their recovery and management of the condition.

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