ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?
- A. Implement a no-harm contract with the client.
- B. Monitor the client closely for signs of self-harm.
- C. Encourage the client to participate in recreational activities.
- D. Encourage the client to maintain a structured daily routine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to a psychiatric unit, implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention to promote the client's safety. A no-harm contract is a formal agreement between the client and the healthcare provider stating that the client commits to not harm themselves or others. This intervention helps in establishing boundaries and promoting safety by enhancing communication and accountability between the client and the healthcare team. Monitoring the client closely for signs of self-harm (Choice B) is important but does not directly address promoting safety through a formal agreement. Encouraging participation in recreational activities (Choice C) and maintaining a structured daily routine (Choice D) are beneficial interventions but may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a client with borderline personality disorder.
2. Which of the following is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- A. Memory loss
- B. Weight gain
- C. Insomnia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Memory loss, particularly short-term memory loss, is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). ECT can affect memory due to its impact on brain function during and after treatment. While the memory issues are often temporary and tend to improve over time, they are important considerations when discussing the risks and benefits of ECT with patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, insomnia, and increased appetite are not common side effects of ECT.
3. Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing severe anxiety?
- A. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
- B. Use a firm, authoritative approach.
- C. Stay with the patient and provide a quiet environment.
- D. Suggest the patient watch TV to distract themselves.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a severe anxiety episode, it's crucial to stay with the patient and create a quiet environment. This approach helps reduce anxiety by providing a sense of safety and support. Encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings may not be effective during an acute episode of severe anxiety. Using a firm, authoritative approach can escalate the situation and worsen the anxiety. Suggesting distractions like watching TV may not address the root cause of the anxiety or provide the necessary support.
4. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? Select the one that does not apply.
- A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
- C. Discontinue the medication abruptly
- D. You may experience an increase in energy before your mood improves
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant should include several key instructions. Firstly, it's important to inform the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, so they should be patient. Secondly, they should be advised to avoid alcohol while taking the medication as it can interact negatively with antidepressants. Additionally, abrupt discontinuation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be avoided. Lastly, clients may experience an increase in energy before their mood improves, which is a common effect of some antidepressants. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants, but adherence to the prescribed regimen and reporting any concerning side effects to the healthcare provider are crucial.
5. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
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