a client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the clients
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to a psychiatric unit, implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention to promote the client's safety. A no-harm contract is a formal agreement between the client and the healthcare provider stating that the client commits to not harm themselves or others. This intervention helps in establishing boundaries and promoting safety by enhancing communication and accountability between the client and the healthcare team. Monitoring the client closely for signs of self-harm (Choice B) is important but does not directly address promoting safety through a formal agreement. Encouraging participation in recreational activities (Choice C) and maintaining a structured daily routine (Choice D) are beneficial interventions but may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a client with borderline personality disorder.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? Select the one that does not apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant should include several key instructions. Firstly, it's important to inform the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, so they should be patient. Secondly, they should be advised to avoid alcohol while taking the medication as it can interact negatively with antidepressants. Additionally, abrupt discontinuation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be avoided. Lastly, clients may experience an increase in energy before their mood improves, which is a common effect of some antidepressants. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants, but adherence to the prescribed regimen and reporting any concerning side effects to the healthcare provider are crucial.

3. Which statement indicates an understanding of the DSM-5 diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the correct answer as the DSM-5 not only provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders but also includes information on cultural considerations. Understanding cultural factors is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate care, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the DSM-5 for healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while the DSM-5 is indeed a tool for healthcare providers, it is also used in legal settings, and it focuses on diagnostic criteria and not just the prevalence of mental disorders.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs block acetylcholine receptors, leading to anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this side effect to promote awareness and provide appropriate management strategies, such as maintaining good oral hygiene and staying hydrated. Choice A, hypertension, is not a common side effect of TCAs. Choice B, diarrhea, is not a typical side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause constipation. Choice D, weight loss, is less common with TCAs as they are more likely to cause weight gain.

5. During a routine health screening, a grieving widow whose husband died 15 months ago reports emptiness, a loss of self, difficulty thinking of the future, and anger at her dead husband. The nurse suggests bereavement counseling. The widow is most likely suffering from:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The widow's symptoms align more closely with an adjustment disorder rather than major depression, normal grieving, or posttraumatic stress disorder. The widow's prolonged struggle in coping with the loss, characterized by emptiness, loss of self, difficulty envisioning the future, and anger towards her deceased husband, indicates an inability to adapt to the loss. These symptoms are indicative of an adjustment disorder, which typically arises in response to a significant life stressor and persists beyond what is considered a normal grieving process. Bereavement counseling can help the widow navigate her emotions and coping strategies during this challenging period.

Similar Questions

A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
A psychiatric nurse observes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia is pacing up and down the corridor. The client is muttering to himself, and his hands are trembling. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing hallucinations. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Which should the individual recognize as an example of the defense mechanism of repression?
Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

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