Nursing Elites

1. A student finds that they come down with a sinus infection toward the end of every semester. When this occurs, which stage of stress is the student most likely experiencing?

• A. Alarm reaction stage
• B. Stage of resistance
• C. Stage of exhaustion
• D. Fight-or-flight stage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The student is most likely experiencing the stage of exhaustion. In this stage, the body's exposure to stress has been prolonged, and adaptive energy has been depleted. As a result, diseases of adaptation, such as the recurrent sinus infection in this case, are more likely to occur. The alarm reaction stage is the initial stage of the stress response, where the body perceives a threat and activates the fight-or-flight response. The stage of resistance is when the body tries to adapt and cope with the stressor. The fight-or-flight response is the immediate reaction to a perceived threat, involving physiological changes to prepare the body to either fight the stressor or flee from it.

2. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?

• A. Implement a no-harm contract with the client.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of self-harm.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in recreational activities.
• D. Encourage the client to maintain a structured daily routine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to a psychiatric unit, implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention to promote the client's safety. A no-harm contract is a formal agreement between the client and the healthcare provider stating that the client commits to not harm themselves or others. This intervention helps in establishing boundaries and promoting safety by enhancing communication and accountability between the client and the healthcare team. Monitoring the client closely for signs of self-harm (Choice B) is important but does not directly address promoting safety through a formal agreement. Encouraging participation in recreational activities (Choice C) and maintaining a structured daily routine (Choice D) are beneficial interventions but may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a client with borderline personality disorder.

3. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?

• A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
• B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
• C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's unhealthy responses and contributing factors.
• D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Psychiatrists use the criteria outlined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) to determine diagnoses. The DSM-5 provides standardized criteria for the classification of mental disorders, ensuring accurate and reliable diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D are inaccurate as hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association is not responsible for psychiatric diagnostic criteria. Choice C describes a more general approach to assessment and does not specifically address the standardized criteria used in psychiatric diagnosis.

4. Which of the following are potential side effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Short-term memory loss
• B. Headache
• C. Confusion
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potential side effects of ECT include short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, particularly antipsychotics that block dopamine receptors over time. ECT is primarily used for severe depression, bipolar disorder, and certain psychotic disorders. The other choices, short-term memory loss, headache, and confusion, are known side effects of ECT and are usually short-term and manageable.

5. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?

• A. Exposure therapy
• B. Cognitive restructuring
• C. Medication management
• D. Psychoeducation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.

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