therapeutic communication is the foundation of a patient centered interview which of the following techniques is not considered therapeutic
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023

1. Therapeutic communication is the foundation of a patient-centered interview. Which of the following techniques is not considered therapeutic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Asking 'why' questions is not considered a therapeutic technique in patient-centered communication as it can make patients feel defensive or judged. 'Why' questions may imply criticism or put the patient on the spot, potentially hindering open and honest communication. Instead, focusing on open-ended questions that encourage patients to express their feelings and thoughts without feeling judged or interrogated is more conducive to therapeutic communication.

2. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.

3. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should not be included in the teaching? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, and mindfulness meditation are commonly used relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Cognitive restructuring is a cognitive-behavioral technique aimed at changing negative thought patterns and beliefs, not a relaxation technique. It focuses on altering cognitive distortions rather than inducing physical relaxation responses.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

5. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.

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