Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Social inhibition
• B. Fear of criticism
• C. Desire for close relationships
• D. Fear of abandonment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with avoidant personality disorder commonly display social inhibition and a fear of criticism or rejection. While they may have a desire for close relationships, they tend to avoid them due to their fear of disapproval and negative evaluation by others. Fear of criticism (Choice B) is also a characteristic behavior seen in individuals with avoidant personality disorder. However, the primary behavior associated with this disorder is social inhibition (Choice A), where individuals tend to be reserved and avoid social interactions. Desiring close relationships (Choice C) may be present, but the fear of rejection typically prevents individuals from pursuing these relationships. Fear of abandonment (Choice D) is more commonly associated with borderline personality disorder rather than avoidant personality disorder.

2. Upon admission, a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder needs the nurse to implement which of the following interventions first?

• A. Administer an antidepressant medication.
• B. Establish a trusting relationship with the client.
• C. Develop a plan of care with the client.
• D. Teach the client about the importance of medication compliance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The initial intervention the nurse should prioritize is to establish a trusting relationship with the client. Building trust is fundamental in fostering effective therapeutic communication and providing quality care. This foundational step lays the groundwork for further assessment, collaboration on care plans, and promoting treatment adherence. Administering medication or discussing compliance should come after the establishment of trust to ensure the client feels supported and understood.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is exhibiting negative symptoms. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Apathy
• D. Disorganized speech

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Apathy is a negative symptom of schizophrenia characterized by a lack of interest or motivation. Negative symptoms involve a decrease or absence of normal functions, such as emotions, motivation, or socialization, rather than the presence of abnormal behaviors like hallucinations or delusions. Hallucinations (choice A) and delusions (choice B) are positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors. Disorganized speech (choice D) is an example of a disorganized symptom, not a negative symptom.

4. A client experiencing a manic episode is talking rapidly and jumping from one topic to another. Which term describes this symptom?

• A. Circumstantiality
• B. Flight of ideas
• C. Tangentiality
• D. Perseveration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a manic episode, 'Flight of ideas' is characterized by rapid speech, where the individual moves quickly between topics without a clear connection. This symptom reflects the racing thoughts and impulsivity often seen in manic episodes. Circumstantiality refers to unnecessary detail and delay in getting to the point, tangentiality involves going off on a tangent or unrelated topics, and perseveration is the persistent repetition of a response or behavior. Therefore, 'Flight of ideas' best describes the symptom of rapidly changing topics during a manic episode.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs block acetylcholine receptors, leading to anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this side effect to promote awareness and provide appropriate management strategies, such as maintaining good oral hygiene and staying hydrated. Choice A, hypertension, is not a common side effect of TCAs. Choice B, diarrhea, is not a typical side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause constipation. Choice D, weight loss, is less common with TCAs as they are more likely to cause weight gain.

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