ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice B
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Social inhibition
- B. Fear of criticism
- C. Desire for close relationships
- D. Fear of abandonment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with avoidant personality disorder commonly display social inhibition and a fear of criticism or rejection. While they may have a desire for close relationships, they tend to avoid them due to their fear of disapproval and negative evaluation by others. Fear of criticism (Choice B) is also a characteristic behavior seen in individuals with avoidant personality disorder. However, the primary behavior associated with this disorder is social inhibition (Choice A), where individuals tend to be reserved and avoid social interactions. Desiring close relationships (Choice C) may be present, but the fear of rejection typically prevents individuals from pursuing these relationships. Fear of abandonment (Choice D) is more commonly associated with borderline personality disorder rather than avoidant personality disorder.
2. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.
3. During an assessment of a client with suspected substance use disorder, which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Feelings of hopelessness
- B. Increased tolerance to the substance
- C. Withdrawal symptoms when not using the substance
- D. Unsuccessful attempts to cut down or control use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with substance use disorder, common findings include increased tolerance to the substance, withdrawal symptoms when not using it, and unsuccessful attempts to cut down or control use. Feelings of hopelessness are not typically a direct manifestation of substance use disorder. Instead, feelings of hopelessness may be associated with other mental health conditions or situational factors. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are all expected findings in clients with substance use disorder.
4. A client is diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder. Which question will help the nurse develop nursing diagnoses for this client’s plan of care?
- A. Are you satisfied with your appearance?
- B. Do you take medication for anxiety as prescribed?
- C. When did you last feel detached from your environment?
- D. How long have you had these memory problems?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with somatic symptom disorder, it is crucial to assess their adherence to medication for anxiety as prescribed. This question helps the nurse understand the client's treatment compliance, which can impact the development of nursing diagnoses and the overall plan of care. Monitoring medication adherence is essential in managing the client's symptoms and improving outcomes.
5. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
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