Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Social inhibition
• B. Fear of criticism
• C. Desire for close relationships
• D. Fear of abandonment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with avoidant personality disorder commonly display social inhibition and a fear of criticism or rejection. While they may have a desire for close relationships, they tend to avoid them due to their fear of disapproval and negative evaluation by others. Fear of criticism (Choice B) is also a characteristic behavior seen in individuals with avoidant personality disorder. However, the primary behavior associated with this disorder is social inhibition (Choice A), where individuals tend to be reserved and avoid social interactions. Desiring close relationships (Choice C) may be present, but the fear of rejection typically prevents individuals from pursuing these relationships. Fear of abandonment (Choice D) is more commonly associated with borderline personality disorder rather than avoidant personality disorder.

2. What assessment question will provide information to the healthcare provider regarding the effects of a woman's circadian rhythms on her quality of life?

• A. How much sleep do you usually get each night?
• B. Does your heart ever seem to skip a beat?
• C. When was the last time you had a fever?
• D. Do you have problems urinating?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct assessment question to understand the effects of a woman's circadian rhythms on her quality of life is to inquire about her sleep duration. Circadian rhythms significantly influence sleep patterns, so knowing how much sleep she usually gets each night can provide valuable insight into potential circadian rhythm disturbances and their impact on her overall well-being.

3. When assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Lanugo
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, expected findings include amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa; instead, hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, is more common. Hypokalemia can result from decreased intake of potassium-rich foods or excessive purging behaviors commonly seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa.

4. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is being educated by a nurse about the use of antidepressants. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect.
• C. I can stop taking my medication once I feel better.
• D. I should not discontinue the medication abruptly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client stating, 'I can stop taking my medication once I feel better,' indicates a need for further teaching. It is crucial for clients with major depressive disorder to understand that they should continue taking their medication as prescribed even if they start feeling better. Stopping the medication prematurely can lead to a relapse of symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements. Avoiding alcohol while taking antidepressants helps prevent interactions and side effects. Understanding that it may take several weeks for the medication to show its full effect is important for managing expectations. Additionally, not discontinuing the medication abruptly is crucial to prevent withdrawal effects or a recurrence of depressive symptoms.

5. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

• A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary.
• B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors.
• C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress.
• D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.

Similar Questions