Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Social inhibition
• B. Fear of criticism
• C. Desire for close relationships
• D. Fear of abandonment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with avoidant personality disorder commonly display social inhibition and a fear of criticism or rejection. While they may have a desire for close relationships, they tend to avoid them due to their fear of disapproval and negative evaluation by others. Fear of criticism (Choice B) is also a characteristic behavior seen in individuals with avoidant personality disorder. However, the primary behavior associated with this disorder is social inhibition (Choice A), where individuals tend to be reserved and avoid social interactions. Desiring close relationships (Choice C) may be present, but the fear of rejection typically prevents individuals from pursuing these relationships. Fear of abandonment (Choice D) is more commonly associated with borderline personality disorder rather than avoidant personality disorder.

2. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?

• A. The client and healthcare provider form a partnership that is challenging for the family to disrupt.
• B. A collaborative approach to treatment planning ensures that both physical and emotional needs will be addressed.
• C. Involving the client in decision-making enhances the feeling of control and fosters cooperation.
• D. Permission for refeeding is crucial as it can have adverse effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.

3. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

• A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
• B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
• C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
• D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

4. Which of the following are common symptoms of major depressive disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Insomnia
• B. Feelings of hopelessness
• C. Increased energy
• D. Difficulty concentrating

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common symptoms of major depressive disorder include insomnia, feelings of hopelessness, difficulty concentrating, and appetite changes. While individuals with major depressive disorder often experience fatigue and low energy levels, increased energy is not typically associated with this condition. Therefore, 'Increased energy' is the correct choice that doesn't apply to major depressive disorder. Choices A, B, and D are all commonly seen in individuals with major depressive disorder, making them incorrect answers.

5. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Clonazepam
• C. Lithium
• D. Fluoxetine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.

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