Nursing Elites

1. A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common side effect of quetiapine, an atypical antipsychotic. Quetiapine can lead to metabolic changes that may result in weight gain. Monitoring weight regularly is essential to address this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Quetiapine is not typically associated with hypertension, hair loss, or hyperthyroidism as common side effects.

2. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?

• A. Implement a no-harm contract with the client.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of self-harm.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in recreational activities.
• D. Encourage the client to maintain a structured daily routine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to a psychiatric unit, implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention to promote the client's safety. A no-harm contract is a formal agreement between the client and the healthcare provider stating that the client commits to not harm themselves or others. This intervention helps in establishing boundaries and promoting safety by enhancing communication and accountability between the client and the healthcare team. Monitoring the client closely for signs of self-harm (Choice B) is important but does not directly address promoting safety through a formal agreement. Encouraging participation in recreational activities (Choice C) and maintaining a structured daily routine (Choice D) are beneficial interventions but may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a client with borderline personality disorder.

3. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

4. A patient being treated for insomnia is prescribed ramelteon (Rozerem). Which comorbid mental health condition would make this medication the hypnotic of choice for this particular patient?

• A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
• B. Generalized anxiety disorder
• C. Persistent depressive disorder
• D. Substance use disorder

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Substance use disorder. Ramelteon is preferred for patients with substance use disorder because it lacks abuse potential. This makes it a safer choice for individuals with a history of substance misuse. Choosing a medication with a lower risk of abuse in this population is crucial to prevent potential misuse or dependence issues.

5. A client is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy sessions.
• B. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety.
• C. Encourage the client to limit caffeine intake.
• D. Encourage the client to avoid stressful situations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety is an appropriate intervention for severe anxiety. Verbalizing emotions can help the client process their feelings and reduce the intensity of anxiety. It promotes emotional expression and may lead to a better understanding of the underlying causes of anxiety, paving the way for effective coping strategies. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for severe anxiety. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be suitable for someone experiencing severe anxiety. Limiting caffeine intake and avoiding stressful situations are helpful strategies but may not address the root of the severe anxiety or provide immediate relief.

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