ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the treatment of choice for patients managing the effects of traumatic events?
- A. I attend my therapy sessions regularly.
- B. Those intrusive memories are hidden for a reason and should stay hidden.
- C. Keeping busy is the key to achieving mental health.
- D. I've agreed to move in with my parents so I'll get the support I need.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Regular attendance at therapy sessions is a crucial aspect of the recommended treatment for managing the effects of traumatic events. Therapy provides a safe space for individuals to process their experiences, develop coping strategies, and work towards healing and recovery. Consistent participation in therapy sessions can help patients address and overcome the impact of trauma on their mental health.
2. When evaluating a client's progress in psychotherapy, which outcome is appropriate for the client?
- A. The client will identify triggers for anxiety.
- B. The client will develop coping strategies.
- C. The client will decrease avoidance behaviors.
- D. The client will express feelings of anger.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In psychotherapy, identifying triggers for anxiety is a crucial step towards understanding and managing one's anxiety symptoms. By recognizing these triggers, clients can work on developing coping strategies and addressing the root cause of their anxiety, leading to improved mental health outcomes. Decreasing avoidance behaviors and expressing feelings of anger are also important aspects of therapy. However, identifying triggers for anxiety is a more specific and foundational goal in addressing anxiety disorders, making it the most appropriate outcome to evaluate a client's progress in psychotherapy.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Social inhibition
- B. Fear of criticism
- C. Desire for close relationships
- D. Fear of abandonment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with avoidant personality disorder commonly display social inhibition and a fear of criticism or rejection. While they may have a desire for close relationships, they tend to avoid them due to their fear of disapproval and negative evaluation by others. Fear of criticism (Choice B) is also a characteristic behavior seen in individuals with avoidant personality disorder. However, the primary behavior associated with this disorder is social inhibition (Choice A), where individuals tend to be reserved and avoid social interactions. Desiring close relationships (Choice C) may be present, but the fear of rejection typically prevents individuals from pursuing these relationships. Fear of abandonment (Choice D) is more commonly associated with borderline personality disorder rather than avoidant personality disorder.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Episodes of hypomania
- B. Periods of elevated mood
- C. Lack of interest in activities
- D. Feelings of detachment from one's body
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should expect in a client diagnosed with persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) is a lack of interest in activities. This disorder is characterized by a chronic depressive mood lasting for at least two years, alongside symptoms such as changes in appetite, fatigue, low self-esteem, and difficulty concentrating. Clients with dysthymia do not typically experience hypomania, periods of elevated mood, or feelings of detachment from one's body, which are more commonly associated with other mood disorders. Therefore, options A, B, and D are incorrect findings for a client with persistent depressive disorder.
5. Which statement indicates an understanding of the DSM-5 diagnosis?
- A. The DSM-5 includes information on cultural considerations.
- B. The DSM-5 is a tool for healthcare providers.
- C. The DSM-5 is not used for legal purposes.
- D. The DSM-5 includes information on the prevalence of mental disorders.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the correct answer as the DSM-5 not only provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders but also includes information on cultural considerations. Understanding cultural factors is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate care, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the DSM-5 for healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while the DSM-5 is indeed a tool for healthcare providers, it is also used in legal settings, and it focuses on diagnostic criteria and not just the prevalence of mental disorders.
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