Nursing Elites

1. What is the most significant consequence of the excessive use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Suppression of problem-solving skills.
• B. Intense experience of emotions.
• C. Enhancement of learning and growth.
• D. Limitation of problem-solving.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most significant consequence of the excessive use of defense mechanisms is the limitation of problem-solving skills. When individuals rely excessively on defense mechanisms to cope with stress or anxiety, they may avoid addressing underlying issues or seeking healthier coping strategies. This can lead to maladaptive behaviors, hindering their ability to effectively deal with reality, maintain healthy relationships, or perform well in various aspects of life. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the suppression of problem-solving skills, intense experience of emotions, and enhancement of learning and growth are not the primary consequences of excessive use of defense mechanisms.

2. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Social inhibition
• B. Fear of criticism
• C. Desire for close relationships
• D. Fear of abandonment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with avoidant personality disorder commonly display social inhibition and a fear of criticism or rejection. While they may have a desire for close relationships, they tend to avoid them due to their fear of disapproval and negative evaluation by others. Fear of criticism (Choice B) is also a characteristic behavior seen in individuals with avoidant personality disorder. However, the primary behavior associated with this disorder is social inhibition (Choice A), where individuals tend to be reserved and avoid social interactions. Desiring close relationships (Choice C) may be present, but the fear of rejection typically prevents individuals from pursuing these relationships. Fear of abandonment (Choice D) is more commonly associated with borderline personality disorder rather than avoidant personality disorder.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

5. Which response demonstrates accurate information that should be discussed with the female patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder and her support system? Select the incorrect one.

• A. Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms.
• B. Due to the risk of a manic episode, antidepressant therapy is never used with bipolar disorder.
• C. It's critical to inform your healthcare provider immediately if you are experiencing sleep disturbances.
• D. Is your family prepared to be actively involved in helping manage this disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing bipolar disorder, it is vital to educate the patient and their support system about triggers like alcohol and caffeine, the significance of good sleep, and the need for family involvement. However, the statement in choice B is incorrect. While antidepressants need to be carefully monitored in bipolar disorder, they can be used in conjunction with mood stabilizers to manage depression in some cases.

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