research undertaken by miller and rahe in 1997 demonstrated a correlation between the effects of life change and illness this research led to the deve
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Research conducted by Miller and Rahe in 1997 demonstrated a correlation between the effects of life changes and illness, leading to the development of the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ). Which principle most limits the effectiveness of this tool?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The main limitation of the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ) is that it does not consider an individual's personal perception of a life event. As people may interpret events differently, their subjective perspective plays a crucial role in how they experience stress and its potential impact on their health. Ignoring personal perception limits the effectiveness of the tool as it fails to capture the variations in how people respond to life changes. Choices A, B, and C are not the main limitations of the RLCQ. Specific illnesses not being identified or numerical values being randomly assigned do not directly impact the personal perception of life events. Additionally, viewing stress as only a physiological response is not the primary limitation, as stress encompasses psychological and emotional components as well.

2. A client is experiencing occasional feelings of sadness due to the recent death of a beloved pet. The client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should the nurse interpret the client's behaviors?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should interpret the client's behaviors as not indicative of mental illness. The client is experiencing normal feelings of sadness following the loss of a pet, and the fact that the client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine remain unchanged suggests no functional impairment. It is essential to recognize that experiencing occasional feelings of sadness in response to a significant life event, such as the death of a pet, does not necessarily signify mental illness, especially when there is no significant impairment in daily functioning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they incorrectly suggest that the client's behaviors indicate mental illness, which is not the case in this context.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is in the manic phase. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may engage in impulsive behaviors that can put them at risk of harm. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli can help reduce the risk of injury by minimizing triggers for impulsive actions. This intervention promotes a safe and controlled setting for the client, which is crucial in managing the symptoms of mania. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice B) may increase stimuli and potentially exacerbate manic symptoms. Monitoring for signs of exhaustion (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the safety concerns related to impulsive behaviors during mania. Encouraging the client to rest and sleep as needed (Choice D) may be challenging during the manic phase when individuals typically experience decreased need for sleep.

4. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. The nurse understands that buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it does not cause sedation. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone has a lower potential for abuse and does not cause the sedative effects commonly seen with benzodiazepines. While benzodiazepines may work immediately to relieve anxiety, buspirone may take longer to show its therapeutic effects. Additionally, buspirone is not limited to short-term treatment only, making it a preferred choice in patients where sedation is a concern or in those with a history of substance abuse.

5. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

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