Nursing Elites

1. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect if the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
• B. Increased prostate size
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Finasteride is used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. As a result, when the medication is effective, the patient should experience a decrease in urinary frequency and urgency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate because finasteride aims to reduce prostate size, not increase it. Choices C and D are unrelated to the action of finasteride in treating BPH.

2. Which of the following describes the condition in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia?

• A. Increased urine retention
• B. Insufficient circulating blood volume
• C. Bounding peripheral pulses
• D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insufficient circulating blood volume. Hypovolemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the volume of blood plasma. This reduction in circulating blood volume can lead to inadequate perfusion of tissues and organs, potentially resulting in shock if left untreated. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased urine retention, bounding peripheral pulses, and crackles auscultated in the lungs are not typical manifestations of hypovolemia.

3. Which of the following eye disorders manifests with red eye, pain, and visual acuity changes?

• A. Bacterial conjunctivitis
• B. Acute closed-angle glaucoma
• C. Chronic open-angle glaucoma
• D. Blepharitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute closed-angle glaucoma presents with symptoms such as a red eye, severe pain, and rapid visual acuity changes due to increased intraocular pressure. This condition is considered an ophthalmologic emergency. Bacterial conjunctivitis typically presents with redness, discharge, and irritation but is not associated with severe pain or visual changes. Chronic open-angle glaucoma is usually asymptomatic until advanced stages and does not typically present with acute pain. Blepharitis involves inflammation of the eyelid margins and is characterized by redness and irritation, but it does not cause severe pain or acute visual changes.

4. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

5. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?

• A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
• B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
• C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
• D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.

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