Nursing Elites

1. During the home visit of a client with dementia, the nurse notes that an adult daughter persistently corrects her father’s misperceptions of reality, even when the father becomes upset and anxious. Which intervention should the nurse teach the caregiver?

• A. Anxiety-reducing measures
• B. Positive reinforcement
• C. Reality orientation techniques
• D. Validation techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Validation techniques. In dementia care, using validation techniques involves acknowledging the person's feelings and reality, even if it differs from actual events or facts. It helps in reducing the client's anxiety and distress. In this scenario, the daughter persistently correcting her father's misperceptions can escalate his anxiety. Teaching the daughter validation techniques will encourage her to validate her father's feelings and perceptions, ultimately promoting a more supportive and less confrontational environment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect in this context. While anxiety-reducing measures can be beneficial, the primary issue here is the father's misperceptions being consistently corrected. Positive reinforcement focuses on rewarding desired behaviors, which is not directly related to the situation described. Reality orientation techniques involve constantly reminding the person of the correct time, place, and other details, which may not be suitable for someone with dementia experiencing distress.

2. A client with heart failure is experiencing pulmonary edema. Which intervention should be prioritized?

• A. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid overload.
• B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation.
• D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing pulmonary edema due to heart failure, the priority intervention is to administer oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation. This helps in increasing the oxygen levels in the blood, thereby improving tissue perfusion and reducing the workload on the heart. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can also aid in improving oxygenation, but administering oxygen therapy directly addresses the immediate need for increased oxygen levels. Administering diuretics to reduce fluid overload and restricting fluid intake are important interventions in heart failure management, but in the acute situation of pulmonary edema, oxygen therapy takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply to vital organs.

3. A nurse caring for a patient with a diagnosis of lung cancer is aware that the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer is:

• A. Alcohol consumption
• B. Smoking
• C. Poor diet
• D. Environmental exposure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is the primary risk factor for developing lung cancer. Tobacco smoke contains numerous carcinogens that can damage the cells in the lungs, leading to the development of cancer. Alcohol consumption (Choice A), poor diet (Choice C), and environmental exposure (Choice D) can contribute to overall health risks, but they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with the development of lung cancer.

4. What should a nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness in treating endometriosis.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis, the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct because it addresses this key point. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently but not necessarily with food. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider is not advisable. Option D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

5. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

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