Nursing Elites

1. During the home visit of a client with dementia, the nurse notes that an adult daughter persistently corrects her father’s misperceptions of reality, even when the father becomes upset and anxious. Which intervention should the nurse teach the caregiver?

• A. Anxiety-reducing measures
• B. Positive reinforcement
• C. Reality orientation techniques
• D. Validation techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Validation techniques. In dementia care, using validation techniques involves acknowledging the person's feelings and reality, even if it differs from actual events or facts. It helps in reducing the client's anxiety and distress. In this scenario, the daughter persistently correcting her father's misperceptions can escalate his anxiety. Teaching the daughter validation techniques will encourage her to validate her father's feelings and perceptions, ultimately promoting a more supportive and less confrontational environment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect in this context. While anxiety-reducing measures can be beneficial, the primary issue here is the father's misperceptions being consistently corrected. Positive reinforcement focuses on rewarding desired behaviors, which is not directly related to the situation described. Reality orientation techniques involve constantly reminding the person of the correct time, place, and other details, which may not be suitable for someone with dementia experiencing distress.

2. A patient with an 18 pack per year history presents to a family practice clinic complaining of painless hoarseness and inability to clear mucus. A biopsy of respiratory tract cells is taken and shows that these cells have been replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells. The nurse knows this type of change is referred to as:

• A. Dysplasia
• B. Metaplasia
• C. Hyperplasia
• D. Coagulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metaplasia is the replacement of one type of cell with another, which can occur in response to chronic irritation, such as from smoking. In this case, the respiratory tract cells being replaced by less mature squamous epithelium cells indicate metaplasia. Dysplasia refers to abnormal development or growth of cells, not replacement; hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells, not a replacement; and coagulation is a process related to blood clotting, not cell replacement.

3. What is responsible for initiating clonal selection?

• A. B cells
• B. T cells
• C. Antigens
• D. Lymphocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Antigens are the correct answer as they are the molecules that trigger the immune response by binding to specific B or T cells. This binding activates these cells, leading to their proliferation and differentiation to fight off the antigen. B cells and T cells are the responders to antigens, not the initiators of clonal selection. Lymphocytes is a broad term encompassing both B and T cells, so it is not the specific factor responsible for initiating clonal selection.

4. A 51-year-old woman has the following clinical findings: thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema. These findings are consistent with:

• A. Subacute thyroiditis.
• B. Autoimmune thyroiditis.
• C. Graves disease.
• D. Hashimoto’s disease.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The clinical findings of thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema are classic features of Graves disease, an autoimmune disorder that results in hyperthyroidism. Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and pretibial edema (swelling in the lower legs) are particularly associated with Graves disease due to the autoimmune stimulation of the thyroid gland, leading to increased thyroid hormone production. Subacute thyroiditis (Choice A) typically presents with neck pain and tenderness, while autoimmune thyroiditis (Choice B) is commonly known as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which presents with hypothyroidism symptoms. Hashimoto's disease (Choice D) is characterized by goiter and hypothyroidism, which contrasts with the hyperthyroidism seen in this patient.

5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

Similar Questions