Nursing Elites

1. During the home visit of a client with dementia, the nurse notes that an adult daughter persistently corrects her father’s misperceptions of reality, even when the father becomes upset and anxious. Which intervention should the nurse teach the caregiver?

• A. Anxiety-reducing measures
• B. Positive reinforcement
• C. Reality orientation techniques
• D. Validation techniques

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Validation techniques. In dementia care, using validation techniques involves acknowledging the person's feelings and reality, even if it differs from actual events or facts. It helps in reducing the client's anxiety and distress. In this scenario, the daughter persistently correcting her father's misperceptions can escalate his anxiety. Teaching the daughter validation techniques will encourage her to validate her father's feelings and perceptions, ultimately promoting a more supportive and less confrontational environment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect in this context. While anxiety-reducing measures can be beneficial, the primary issue here is the father's misperceptions being consistently corrected. Positive reinforcement focuses on rewarding desired behaviors, which is not directly related to the situation described. Reality orientation techniques involve constantly reminding the person of the correct time, place, and other details, which may not be suitable for someone with dementia experiencing distress.

2. A report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. A nurse recalls that muscular atrophy involves a decrease in muscle cell size:

• A. Number
• B. Size
• C. Vacuoles
• D. Lipofuscin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Size. Muscular atrophy is characterized by a reduction in the size of muscle cells. This decrease in size can be due to various factors such as disuse, aging, or disease. Choice A, Number, is incorrect because muscular atrophy does not involve a decrease in the number of muscle cells but rather their size. Choice C, Vacuoles, is incorrect as vacuoles are not directly related to the definition of muscular atrophy. Choice D, Lipofuscin, is incorrect as lipofuscin is a pigment associated with aging and has no direct connection to the decrease in muscle cell size seen in muscular atrophy.

3. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?

• A. Reversible with cognitive therapy in infancy
• B. Transient and resolves in adulthood through physical therapy
• C. Manifests in adulthood after regular childhood activities
• D. Irreversible and occurs before, during, or after birth or infancy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebral palsy involves irreversible damage to the brain that occurs before, during, or shortly after birth, impacting movement and coordination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cerebral palsy is not reversible with cognitive therapy or physical therapy, does not resolve in adulthood, and does not manifest in adulthood after regular childhood activities.

4. When assessing a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives, what should the nurse consider?

• A. The possibility of pregnancy
• B. The patient's adherence to the medication schedule
• C. The need for an increased dosage
• D. The effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of missed doses or inconsistent use, which can decrease the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive. Considering the possibility of pregnancy (Choice A) is important but secondary to assessing adherence. The need for an increased dosage (Choice C) is not typically the first consideration for breakthrough bleeding. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (Choice D) is relevant but should come after assessing adherence to the medication schedule.

5. A patient is receiving intravenous amphotericin. Which of the following assessments warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Hematocrit of 39%
• C. Blood urea nitrogen of 60 mg/dL
• D. AST level of 10 Unit/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intravenous amphotericin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to increased blood urea nitrogen levels. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates impaired renal function, which is a known adverse effect of amphotericin. Therefore, a BUN level of 60 mg/dL warrants the discontinuation of the antifungal agent. The other options, such as a sodium level of 138 mEq/L, hematocrit of 39%, and AST level of 10 Unit/L, are within normal ranges and not indicative of the need to discontinue amphotericin therapy.

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