ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. A 5-year-old female takes a hike through the woods during a school field trip. Upon returning home, she hugs her father, and he later develops poison ivy. Which of the following immune reactions is he experiencing?
- A. IgE-mediated
- B. Tissue-specific
- C. Immune complex
- D. Cell-mediated
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The father's immune reaction to poison ivy is an example of cell-mediated immunity, specifically a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. In this type of reaction, sensitized T cells react to antigens, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. IgE-mediated reactions involve antibodies of the IgE class, commonly seen in allergic responses like anaphylaxis. Tissue-specific reactions target specific organs or tissues. Immune complex reactions involve immune complexes formed by antigens and antibodies that can deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation.
2. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?
- A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
- B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
- C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
- D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics due to potential drug interactions. It is crucial for patients to be informed about this to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that immediate protection is conferred, which is not the case. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.
3. Why is testosterone therapy prescribed for a 70-year-old man being treated for osteoporosis?
- A. To increase bone density
- B. To reduce the risk of fractures
- C. To enhance sexual performance
- D. To restore testosterone levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary reason for prescribing testosterone therapy for osteoporosis in men is to restore testosterone levels, not specifically to increase bone density. Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density, so by restoring testosterone levels, it indirectly helps in maintaining bone density. Choices A and B are partially correct but do not address the primary reason for testosterone therapy in this context. Choice C is incorrect as the main focus of testosterone therapy in osteoporosis treatment is not related to enhancing sexual performance.
4. During patient teaching, a young woman asks the nurse the following question: 'If I get pregnant on the 'pill,' should I continue to take it?' What is the nurse's best response?
- A. The pill has no effect on pregnancy.
- B. The pill will cause miscarriage.
- C. This is a personal choice for each woman.
- D. The pill can be harmful to the fetus and should be discontinued.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: This is a personal choice for each woman.' If a woman becomes pregnant while taking birth control pills, it is generally recommended to discontinue them as they can potentially harm the fetus. However, the decision to continue or discontinue the pill in case of pregnancy is ultimately a personal choice for each woman. Choice A is incorrect because birth control pills are meant to prevent pregnancy, but if a woman becomes pregnant while taking them, the situation changes. Choice B is incorrect because birth control pills do not cause miscarriage; they are intended to prevent pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect because while it is generally advised to discontinue the pill if pregnancy occurs, the decision ultimately depends on the individual circumstances and preferences of the woman.
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Hypertensive crisis
- D. Myocardial infarction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access