a patient with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache confusion and visual disturbances his blood pressure is 220120 mm hg which of
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Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. A patient with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. His blood pressure is 220/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A patient with a history of hypertension presenting with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances, along with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, likely has a hypertensive emergency. In this situation, the severely elevated blood pressure can lead to end-organ damage, causing symptoms such as headache and confusion. Migraine and tension headaches are not associated with such high blood pressure levels. Cluster headaches typically do not present with visual disturbances and confusion in the setting of severe hypertension.

2. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that can lead to COPD at a young age, even in light smokers. Choice B is less likely as the patient's occupation does not directly correlate with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice C, a 70-year-old woman with a long smoking history, is more likely to have COPD due to smoking rather than alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice D, exposure to secondhand smoke, is not a common cause of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency-related COPD.

3. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of ADH, which leads to water retention and dilution of blood sodium levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because SIADH is not associated with decreased insulin production, decreased ADH production, or increased production of insulin.

4. A patient is starting on a statin medication for hyperlipidemia. What critical instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Statins like atorvastatin should be taken at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Taking the medication with a high-fat meal (choice D) is not recommended as it can decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Alcohol consumption (choice C) should be moderated but does not need to be completely avoided unless contraindicated. Taking the medication with breakfast (choice B) may not be as effective as taking it at night due to the circadian rhythm of cholesterol synthesis.

5. A patient is prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes. What is the expected outcome of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The expected outcome of acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes is decreased viral shedding. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby reducing viral shedding and helping to control outbreaks. Choice A, decreased testosterone production, and Choice B, decreased libido, are unrelated outcomes of acyclovir treatment for genital herpes. Choice D, decreased bacterial replication, is also incorrect as acyclovir specifically targets viruses and does not affect bacterial replication.

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