Nursing Elites

1. A 34-year-old woman has presented to the clinic for the first time, and the nurse learns that she has been taking Depo Provera for the past 13 years. This aspect of the woman's medical history should prompt what assessment?

• A. Cardiac stress testing
• B. Renal ultrasound
• C. Bone density testing
• D. Evaluation of triglyceride levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is bone density testing (Choice C). Long-term use of Depo Provera, a hormonal contraceptive, is associated with decreased bone mineral density. Assessing bone density is crucial to monitor for potential osteoporosis. Cardiac stress testing (Choice A) is not indicated based on the medication history provided. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and evaluation of triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not directly related to the use of Depo Provera.

2. Which pathophysiologic process causes the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
• B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
• C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
• D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. In acute glomerulonephritis, immune complexes deposit in the glomerulus, leading to inflammation, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. These processes collectively reduce the glomerular filtration rate. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately describe the pathophysiologic process in acute glomerulonephritis. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries, necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure, and scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule are not the primary mechanisms responsible for the decreased filtration rate in this condition.

3. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

• A. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids.
• B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins.
• C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment.
• D. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with an astrocytoma. The client asks, 'What do astrocytes do in the brain?' What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Astrocytes help to nourish and support neurons in the brain.
• B. Astrocytes are a type of neuron that transmit electrical signals.
• C. Astrocytes are involved in immune responses in the brain.
• D. Astrocytes help regulate blood flow in the brain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Astrocytes play a crucial role in supporting and nourishing neurons by providing metabolic support, maintaining the blood-brain barrier, and regulating the chemical environment of the brain. While astrocytes are essential for brain function, they are not neurons and do not transmit electrical signals (Choice B). Astrocytes are not primarily involved in immune responses in the brain (Choice C) or in regulating blood flow in the brain (Choice D), although they indirectly influence blood flow through their support functions.

5. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?

• A. Orally, with food
• B. Orally, on an empty stomach
• C. Intramuscularly
• D. Intravenously, as a bolus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.

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