a patient is being treated for a fungal infection with iv amphotericin b in order to prevent drug discomfort the nurse should consistently monitor the
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ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. When treating a patient for a fungal infection with IV amphotericin B, what should the nurse consistently monitor the patient's levels of to prevent drug discomfort?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with IV amphotericin B for a fungal infection, it is crucial to monitor the patient's calcium levels consistently. IV amphotericin B can cause hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and most notably, hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels helps prevent drug-related discomfort and adverse effects. Sodium (Choice A), hemoglobin (Choice B), and leukocytes (Choice D) are not the primary parameters to monitor specifically for drug discomfort related to amphotericin B. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

2. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

3. A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.

4. What causes osteoporosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis is commonly caused by bone loss that occurs with aging, leading to brittle bones. Choice A, poor nutrition in infancy, is not a direct cause of osteoporosis. Choice B, regularly weight-bearing exercise, actually helps in maintaining bone density and strength, reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, cerebral palsy and associated disorders, is not a common cause of osteoporosis.

5. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with this diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right lower quadrant cramping. Crohn's disease commonly presents with abdominal pain, particularly in the right lower quadrant. Choice B, severe bloody diarrhea, is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, are not typical symptoms of Crohn's disease. Choice D is incorrect as Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, not just the rectum.

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