a 30 year old has poorly controlled asthma and is taking prednisone 10 mg by mouth once a day he has been on this regimen for 6 weeks abrupt withdrawa
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024

1. A 30-year-old has poorly controlled asthma and is taking prednisone 10 mg by mouth once a day. He has been on this regimen for 6 weeks. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of this medication can cause:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to adrenal crisis. This occurs due to the suppression of the adrenal glands' natural cortisol production caused by prolonged exogenous steroid administration. Adrenal crisis presents with symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, abdominal pain, and hypotension. Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) results from chronic excessive exposure to cortisol, not abrupt withdrawal. ACTH stimulation would be expected in response to low cortisol levels, not as a direct consequence of prednisone withdrawal. Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm) is associated with severe hyperthyroidism and is not directly related to corticosteroid withdrawal.

2. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This is important to prevent the transfer of the medication to others. Applying it to the face and neck (Choice A) is incorrect as these areas are not recommended. Similarly, applying it to the scalp and back (Choice C) or the genitals (Choice D) is also incorrect and can lead to inappropriate absorption or undesirable effects.

3. A group of nursing students and their professor are engaged in a service learning project and will be caring for patients in Haiti. What medication should be administered to prevent the development of malaria?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen). Chloroquine is a medication used to prevent and treat malaria. It works by killing the malaria parasite in the red blood cells. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial and parasitic infections, not malaria. Oprelvekin (Neumega) is a medication used to stimulate platelet production. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine) is a local anesthetic used for epidural anesthesia. Therefore, Chloroquine phosphate is the appropriate medication for preventing malaria in this scenario.

4. An adult patient has begun treatment with fluconazole. The nurse should recognize the need to likely discontinue the drug if the patient develops which of the following signs or symptoms?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Fluconazole, an antifungal medication, can rarely cause hepatotoxicity, which may manifest as jaundice. Monitoring for signs of liver dysfunction, such as jaundice, is crucial during fluconazole therapy. Weight gain, iron deficiency anemia, and hematuria are not commonly associated with fluconazole use and are not indications for discontinuing the drug.

5. In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rh antigen. In addition to ABO antigens, Rh antigen must also be matched for a blood transfusion. Rh antigen compatibility is crucial to prevent adverse reactions. Choice A, HLA type, is not directly related to blood transfusions but plays a role in organ transplantation. Choice C, Immunoglobulins, are not typically matched for blood transfusions. Choice D, Platelet compatibility, while important in specific cases, is not a standard requirement for all blood transfusions.

Similar Questions

A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?
A 51-year-old woman has the following clinical findings: thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema. These findings are consistent with:
Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?
While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:
Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is indicated for the treatment of women with

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses