a patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen nolvadex what is a critical point the nurse should include in the patient educ
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What is a critical point the nurse should include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms but this is not the critical point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention, but it is not the critical point that the nurse should focus on in patient education.

2. A nursing student having trouble moving her head from side to side is likely experiencing a problem with which type of neurons?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pharyngeal efferent neurons. Pharyngeal efferent neurons are responsible for controlling head movements, including side-to-side motions. General visceral efferent neurons (Choice A) are involved in innervating smooth muscles and glands in the body's internal organs. Preganglionic neurons (Choice B) are part of the autonomic nervous system and connect the central nervous system to the ganglia. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons (Choice C) are the second neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system pathway, responsible for innervating target organs. In this case, the issue with moving the head from side to side indicates a problem with the pharyngeal efferent neurons.

3. Which symptoms are typical of asthma?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wheezing and dyspnea are typical symptoms of asthma. Wheezing refers to a high-pitched whistling sound while breathing, and dyspnea is shortness of breath. These symptoms are classic signs of airway obstruction and inflammation seen in asthma. Choice A is incorrect as chest pain is not a typical symptom of asthma, though coughing can occur. Choice B is incorrect as diarrhea is not associated with asthma, while wheezing is a common symptom. Choice D is incorrect as tachypnea (rapid breathing) can occur in asthma, but constipation is not a typical symptom.

4. A patient has developed a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx. What defense mechanism is most affected by this homeostatic change?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx indicates a breakdown of the skin's integrity due to prolonged pressure. The skin is the primary defense mechanism of the body against external pathogens. When the skin is compromised, it can lead to infections and other complications. The mucous membrane (Choice A) plays a role in protecting internal surfaces, not the skin. The respiratory tract (Choice B) is involved in breathing and not directly related to the skin's defense. The gastrointestinal tract (Choice D) is responsible for digestion and absorption of nutrients, not the primary defense mechanism against external threats like the skin.

5. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

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