Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What is a critical point the nurse should include in the patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms but this is not the critical point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention, but it is not the critical point that the nurse should focus on in patient education.

2. An MRI scan of a 33-year-old female client with new-onset seizures has revealed a lesion on her frontal lobe. Which of the following signs and symptoms would most likely be a direct result of this lesion?

• A. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs
• B. Fluctuations in blood pressure
• C. Changes in speech and reasoning
• D. Increased intracranial pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Changes in speech and reasoning. The frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive functions, including speech and reasoning. A lesion in this area can lead to difficulties in speech production, language comprehension, and reasoning abilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Changes in sensation or movement in the client's limbs are more associated with lesions in the motor or sensory cortices of the brain, not the frontal lobe. Fluctuations in blood pressure are often related to autonomic nervous system dysfunction, which is controlled by other brain regions. Increased intracranial pressure is typically seen in conditions like brain tumors or head trauma, not directly related to a frontal lobe lesion.

3. An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a sex hormone deficiency and has begun a course of treatment with testosterone. What change in the boy's health status would necessitate a stop to the course of treatment?

• A. Excessive growth in height
• B. Signs of puberty
• C. Recurrent urinary tract infections
• D. Increased blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In an 8-year-old boy with a sex hormone deficiency being treated with testosterone, the appearance of signs of puberty would necessitate stopping the treatment. Testosterone therapy in this case aims to supplement the deficient sex hormones but should not trigger premature puberty. Excessive growth in height (choice A) is not a typical reason to stop testosterone therapy. Recurrent urinary tract infections (choice C) and increased blood pressure (choice D) are not directly related to testosterone therapy in this context.

4. A patient is being treated for a severe fungal infection with amphotericin B. What is the expected length of treatment for this patient?

• A. 1 to 2 weeks
• B. 3 to 6 weeks
• C. 4 to 12 weeks
• D. 15 to 18 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '4 to 12 weeks.' Amphotericin B treatment duration for severe fungal infections typically ranges from 4 to 12 weeks. This extended period is necessary to ensure complete eradication of the fungal infection and prevent relapse. Choices A, B, and D provide durations that are either too short or too long for treating severe fungal infections effectively, making them incorrect.

5. When taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis, what important instruction should the nurse provide about taking this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals.
• C. Discontinuing medroxyprogesterone should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily rather than weekly for the treatment of endometriosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When taking medroxyprogesterone acetate for endometriosis, it is essential to maintain consistent hormone levels by taking the medication at the same time each day. This consistency helps optimize the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken without regard to meals, not necessarily with food. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful and may not address side effects appropriately. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily to manage endometriosis symptoms, not weekly, to ensure continuous therapy and symptom control.

Similar Questions