ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
- A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
- B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
- C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
- D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.
2. An RN�s current patient and family have presented her with an ethical dilemma. What is the first step the RN should take to find a workable solution to the problem?
- A. Planning
- B. Assessment
- C. Evaluation
- D. Implementation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first step the RN should take to find a workable solution to the problem is assessment.
3. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?
- A. Whole blood
- B. Platelets
- C. Fresh frozen plasma
- D. Packed red blood cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Stridor
- B. Copious oral secretions
- C. Hoarseness
- D. Sore throat
Correct answer: Stridor
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.
5. In the newborn, into what muscle is intramuscular vitamin K administered?
- A. Deltoid
- B. Dorsogluteal
- C. Rectus femoris
- D. Vastus lateralis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In newborns, intramuscular vitamin K is traditionally administered into the vastus lateralis muscle. This site is preferred due to its large muscle mass and accessibility. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for newborns due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid site is also not recommended for newborns. The rectus femoris muscle is not commonly used for intramuscular injections in newborns.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99