Nursing Elites

1. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?

• A. Pruritis (itching)
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Altered glucose metabolism
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.

2. Nurse Ben is reviewing the laboratory results of a client undergoing chemotherapy. Which of the following values would require immediate intervention?

• A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3
• B. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL
• D. Absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

3. A nurse works on an oncology unit and delegates personal hygiene to assistive personnel (AP). What action by the AP requires intervention from the nurse?

• A. Allowing a very tired client to skip oral hygiene and sleep.
• B. Assisting clients with washing the perianal area every 12 hours.
• C. Helping the client use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care.
• D. Reminding the client to rinse the mouth with water or saline.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Skipping oral hygiene is not appropriate for a client, even if they are tired, as it increases the risk of infection.

4. The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on the signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patient’s risk of hypercalcemia?

• A. Stool softeners are contraindicated.
• B. Laxatives should be taken daily.
• C. Consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily.
• D. Restrict calcium intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should encourage the patient to consume 2 to 4 liters of fluid daily to reduce the risk of hypercalcemia.

5. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?

• A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
• B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
• C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
• D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.

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