Nursing Elites

1. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?

• A. Eat a light breakfast only
• B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
• D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.

2. A patient with multiple myeloma is receiving chemotherapy and is at risk for bone fractures. What intervention should the nurse prioritize to reduce this risk?

• A. Encouraging bed rest
• B. Promoting bed rest to avoid injury
• C. Encouraging weight-bearing exercises
• D. Ensuring adequate hydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Promoting bed rest to avoid injury.' In patients with multiple myeloma undergoing chemotherapy, encouraging bed rest can lead to muscle weakness and bone loss, increasing the risk of fractures. Promoting bed rest to avoid injury means advising the patient on safe movement and activities to prevent fractures. Encouraging weight-bearing exercises (choice C) would be more beneficial than bed rest as it helps in maintaining bone density and strength. Ensuring adequate hydration (choice D) is essential for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bone fractures associated with multiple myeloma and chemotherapy. Choice A, 'Encouraging bed rest,' is incorrect as it may worsen the risk of fractures rather than reduce it.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma and is monitoring the client for signs of hypercalcemia. Which symptom would be an early indication?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Polyphagia
• C. Polydipsia
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with multiple myeloma, hypercalcemia is a common complication due to the release of calcium from the bones as a result of osteolytic lesions. One of the early symptoms of hypercalcemia is polyuria, or increased urine output. This occurs because elevated calcium levels can lead to impaired renal function and increased renal excretion of calcium, which results in increased urine production. Early recognition of polyuria can help prompt further evaluation and management of hypercalcemia, as untreated hypercalcemia can lead to more severe complications.

4. The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse's assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?

• A. Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
• B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
• C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). Tumor lysis syndrome is a potential complication after treatment for certain cancers, including non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The rapid breakdown of cancer cells in response to treatment can lead to metabolic abnormalities, such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia, which can be life-threatening. Choice B, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), is not typically associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice C, Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), is more commonly seen in conditions such as sepsis or trauma, not directly related to non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common complication following treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

5. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

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