Nursing Elites

1. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?

• A. Eat a light breakfast only
• B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
• D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.

2. Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:

• A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
• B. on the same day each month.
• C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
• D. immediately after her menstrual period.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For premenopausal women, the best time to perform a breast self-examination (BSE) is immediately after their menstrual period ends. This timing is ideal because hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle can cause breast tissue to become swollen and tender, making it more difficult to detect any lumps or changes. After the menstrual period, breast tissue is usually softer and less lumpy, allowing for a more accurate assessment of any abnormalities.

3. A nurse at a long-term care facility is amending the care plan of a resident who has just been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication?

• A. Dalteparin
• B. Allopurinol
• C. Hydroxyurea
• D. Hydrochlorothiazide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hydroxyurea is effective in lowering the platelet count for patients with ET.

4. A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Isolate the client in a private room.
• B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
• C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
• D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.

5. While a patient is receiving IV doxorubicin hydrochloride for the treatment of cancer, the nurse observes swelling and pain at the IV site. The nurse should prioritize what action?

• A. Stopping the administration of the drug immediately
• B. Notifying the patient's physician
• C. Continuing the infusion but decreasing the rate
• D. Applying a warm compress to the infusion site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when observing swelling and pain at the IV site during the administration of doxorubicin hydrochloride is to stop the administration of the drug immediately. Doxorubicin hydrochloride can cause severe tissue damage, so discontinuing the infusion is crucial to prevent further harm to the patient. Notifying the physician is important, but it should not take precedence over stopping the drug. Continuing the infusion, even at a decreased rate, can exacerbate tissue damage. Applying a warm compress is not appropriate in this situation and may worsen the tissue injury caused by the drug.

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