ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?
- A. Eat a light breakfast only
- B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
- C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
- D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pelvic ultrasound requires the client to have a full bladder because the bladder acts as a window through which pelvic organs, such as the uterus and ovaries, can be visualized more clearly. The full bladder pushes the intestines out of the way and provides a better acoustic pathway for the ultrasound waves. Without this, the pelvic organs might be obscured, and the images would be less accurate.
2. A patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is undergoing chemotherapy and develops neutropenia. What is the most important nursing intervention for this patient?
- A. Administering antipyretics
- B. Restricting visitors
- C. Maintaining a sterile environment
- D. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining a sterile environment is crucial to prevent infection in neutropenic patients.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Which laboratory value requires the nurse to intervene?
- A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Increased serum calcium
- C. Increased creatinine level
- D. Increased blood glucose level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when large numbers of cancer cells die rapidly, releasing their contents into the bloodstream. This can overwhelm the kidneys and lead to acute kidney injury. Creatinine is a waste product filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, and an elevated creatinine level is a sign of kidney dysfunction or damage. In TLS, increased creatinine levels indicate that the kidneys are struggling to filter out the excess waste products from cell breakdown, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications, such as acute renal failure.
4. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?
- A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
- B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
- C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
- D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.
5. A client hospitalized for chemotherapy has a hemoglobin of 6.1 mg/dL (61 mmol/L). The client is symptomatic but refuses blood transfusions. What medication does the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Epoetin alfa.
- B. Filgrastim.
- C. Mesna.
- D. Dexrazoxane.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, which is important for a client who refuses blood transfusions.
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