ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?
- A. Interrupted sleep pattern
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Epistaxis (nose bleed)
- D. Increased weight
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage. Patients receiving chemotherapy agents like carmustine may experience thrombocytopenia as a significant side effect. Epistaxis (nosebleeds) is a common symptom associated with thrombocytopenia, as the blood vessels can become more fragile, and even minor trauma or spontaneous bleeding can occur. Therefore, assessing for signs of bleeding, including epistaxis, is crucial in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate the production of red blood cells in patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), a disorder characterized by ineffective blood cell production, including red blood cells. The primary goal of erythropoietin therapy is to increase red blood cell count, improving the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and reducing symptoms of anemia, such as fatigue and weakness. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is the best way to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy because it directly reflects the patient's red blood cell count and the success of erythropoiesis (red blood cell production).
3. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following?
- A. Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications
- B. Radiation therapy on a daily basis
- C. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
- D. An aggressive course of chemotherapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy.
4. The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?
- A. Frequent swallowing
- B. Presence of mucous membranes
- C. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber
- D. Inspiratory stridor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.
5. A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving chemotherapy. Which side effect is the nurse most concerned about?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Alopecia
- C. Fatigue
- D. Peripheral neuropathy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Peripheral neuropathy. This can be a serious and dose-limiting side effect of chemotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma. Peripheral neuropathy can cause tingling, numbness, and pain in the hands and feet due to nerve damage. While nausea and vomiting, alopecia, and fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy, they are not typically as concerning or dose-limiting as peripheral neuropathy in the context of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment.
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