ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim to a client undergoing chemotherapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase white blood cell production.
- B. Reduce the risk of infection.
- C. Enhance red blood cell production.
- D. Control chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Filgrastim is primarily used to increase white blood cell production in clients undergoing chemotherapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy is used to stimulate the production of red blood cells in patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), a disorder characterized by ineffective blood cell production, including red blood cells. The primary goal of erythropoietin therapy is to increase red blood cell count, improving the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and reducing symptoms of anemia, such as fatigue and weakness. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is the best way to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy because it directly reflects the patient's red blood cell count and the success of erythropoiesis (red blood cell production).
3. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?
- A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
- B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
- C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
- D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.
4. After receiving a diagnosis of acute lymphocytic leukemia, a patient is visibly distraught, stating, I have no idea where to go from here. How should the nurse prepare to meet this patients psychosocial needs?
- A. Assess the patients previous experience with the health care system.
- B. Reassure the patient that treatment will be challenging but successful.
- C. Assess the patients specific needs for education and support.
- D. Identify the patients plan of medical care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In order to meets the patients needs, the nurse must first identify the specific nature of these needs.
5. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:
- A. To examine the testicles while lying down
- B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
- C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
- D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.
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