ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:
- A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
- B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
- C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
- D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.
2. A patient is starting on alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- C. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime can increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect as taking alendronate with milk can reduce its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance its effectiveness.
3. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:
- A. Malnutrition
- B. Free radicals
- C. Ischemia
- D. Chemical toxicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ischemia. In this scenario, the 75-year-old male experiences chest pain on exertion, which is indicative of angina. Angina is primarily caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to hypoxic injury. This condition is known as ischemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Malnutrition does not typically cause chest pain related to exertion. Free radicals and chemical toxicity are not common causes of chest pain in the context described. Therefore, the most likely cause of chest pain in this case is ischemia due to reduced blood flow.
4. Which of the following is a cause of hypothyroidism?
- A. Overproduction of cortisol
- B. Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland
- C. Overactivity of the thyroid gland
- D. Insufficient iodine intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland does not produce enough hormones to meet the body's needs. This can be due to autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland, where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid tissue. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Overproduction of cortisol is associated with conditions like Cushing's syndrome, overactivity of the thyroid gland is a characteristic of hyperthyroidism, and insufficient iodine intake can lead to goiter but not necessarily hypothyroidism.
5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the education regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, it is essential to stress the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This ensures stable hormone levels, improving the effectiveness of the contraceptives in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is crucial for maintaining hormone levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning to avoid side effects. Choice D is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to become fully effective, and consistent timing is important for their efficacy.
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