while assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an r on t premature ventricular beat that d
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

2. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

3. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

4. What is the major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) in a patient with chronic renal failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) is to stimulate the production of neutrophils, thereby decreasing neutropenia in patients undergoing chemotherapy. This medication helps the bone marrow produce more white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to reduce the risk of infections associated with low neutrophil counts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because filgrastim does not decrease white blood cells related to infection, growth of blood vessels, or platelet count related to bleeding.

5. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy. What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During estradiol therapy, the nurse should monitor liver function tests. Estradiol can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to assess for any signs of liver dysfunction. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to estradiol therapy. While blood glucose levels (Choice B) should be monitored in patients taking certain medications like corticosteroids or antipsychotics, it is not typically necessary for patients on estradiol therapy. Kidney function tests (Choice D) are not the priority for monitoring during estradiol therapy, as the liver is more commonly affected.

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