Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

2. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:

• A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
• B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
• C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
• D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.

3. What potential risk should the nurse identify as being associated with infliximab (Remicade) in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Risk for decreased level of consciousness
• C. Risk for nephrotoxicity
• D. Risk for hepatotoxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for infection. Infliximab (Remicade) is a medication used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. One of the main risks associated with infliximab is an increased susceptibility to infections due to its immunosuppressive effects. This drug works by targeting specific proteins in the body's immune system, which can weaken the body's ability to fight off infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infliximab is not typically associated with decreased level of consciousness, nephrotoxicity, or hepatotoxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients on infliximab for signs of infection and educate them on the importance of infection prevention strategies.

4. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse discuss with the patient?

• A. Use of nitrates
• B. Use of antihypertensive medications
• C. History of hypertension
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates potentiate the hypotensive effects of tadalafil, leading to a potentially life-threatening drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because antihypertensive medications, history of hypertension, and history of peptic ulcer disease are not critical contraindications for tadalafil use. While caution may be needed in patients with certain conditions, the highest priority is addressing the interaction with nitrates.

5. What action is specific to hormonal contraceptives and should be taught to this woman?

• A. The cervical mucus is altered to prevent sperm penetration.
• B. The release of follicle-stimulating hormone is increased to block fertility.
• C. The maturation of the endometrial lining is activated by the contraceptive.
• D. The pituitary gland increases the synthesis and release of luteinizing hormone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action specific to hormonal contraceptives that should be taught to the woman is that they alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. This mechanism helps in preventing pregnancy by reducing the chances of sperm reaching the egg. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate as hormonal contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation rather than increasing follicle-stimulating hormone release. Choice C is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not activate the maturation of the endometrial lining; instead, they modify it to prevent implantation. Choice D is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate the pituitary gland to increase luteinizing hormone synthesis and release.

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