ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:
- A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
- B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
- C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
- D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.
2. A patient with a history of breast cancer is being prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). The nurse should educate the patient about what potential side effect of this medication?
- A. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
- B. Increased risk of hot flashes
- C. Increased risk of cataracts
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, a serious side effect. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots such as swelling, redness, warmth, or pain in the affected limb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with an increased risk of hot flashes, cataracts, or bone fractures.
3. Which of the following describes passive immunity?
- A. Vaccination against the disease
- B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby
- C. Cuts or wounds that are infected and heal
- D. Having the disease in question
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Passive immunity is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection. In this case, the correct answer is the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the baby, as it describes the concept of passive immunity. Choice A, vaccination against the disease, refers to active immunity where the individual's immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies. Choice C, cuts or wounds that are infected and heal, is unrelated to immunity. Choice D, having the disease in question, does not describe passive immunity but rather acquiring active immunity through exposure to the pathogen.
4. A patient with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone, but rather helps to maintain existing bone mass. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
5. What is the best method to identify which type of stroke the client has?
- A. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram STAT
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for electrolytes and blood cultures
- C. Ask the client about current allergies
- D. Obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cranial computerized tomogram (CT) STAT. A cranial CT scan is the best method to quickly identify the type of stroke a client is experiencing. Options A, B, and C are not appropriate for identifying the type of stroke as they are not specific to assessing stroke types.
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