Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

2. A 70-year-old woman has difficulty with driving, and she has been frequently getting lost. Her husband said she has also been acting strange and seems to want to sleep a lot. He said the other night she kept saying she was seeing animals such as lions in her room. He says her memory is not too bad, but he is very concerned about her health. Physical examination reveals an alert woman with stable vital signs. Bradykinesia and limb rigidity are noted. These findings are consistent with:

• A. Alzheimer's disease.
• B. Vascular dementia.
• C. Dementia with Lewy bodies.
• D. Frontotemporal dementia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario, such as visual hallucinations, fluctuations in cognition, and parkinsonism (bradykinesia and limb rigidity), are classic features of dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB). DLB is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain, which are abnormal protein deposits. Alzheimer's disease (Choice A) typically presents with memory loss as a predominant symptom, which is not a major concern in this case. Vascular dementia (Choice B) is associated with a history of cerebrovascular disease and is not supported by the symptoms described. Frontotemporal dementia (Choice D) usually presents with changes in behavior and personality, rather than the symptoms described in the scenario.

3. In gout, a man has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:

• A. asymptomatic.
• B. acute flare.
• C. the intercritical period.
• D. chronic gout.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The man's presentation of large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows is indicative of tophi formation, which is characteristic of chronic gout. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that can develop over time in untreated or poorly managed gout. During the chronic phase of gout, tophi can form in joints, soft tissues, and organs. Asymptomatic refers to a phase where there are no symptoms present. Acute flare is characterized by sudden and severe joint pain and inflammation. The intercritical period is the time between gout attacks when the patient is symptom-free.

4. A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, “I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?

• A. “Remember that if you miss a dose, you need to take a double dose at the next scheduled time.”
• B. “It's acceptable to miss an occasional dose as long as your symptoms don't worsen, but it's important to strive for consistent adherence.”
• C. “Remember that your antiretroviral drugs will only be effective if you take them consistently and as prescribed.”
• D. “If you're not consistent with taking your medications, you're likely to develop more side effects.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.

5. When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.

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