Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:

• A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
• B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
• C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
• D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.

2. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?

• A. Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density.
• B. Raloxifene increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
• C. Raloxifene stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• D. Raloxifene decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density, making it effective in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.

3. Which of the following statements describes an active cellular membrane exchange process?

• A. Sodium moving out of cells and potassium moving into cells
• B. The movement of water from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration
• C. The movement of insulin using a protein to travel across the cell membrane
• D. Oxygen moving across the pulmonary capillaries to an area of high carbon dioxide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In active transport, energy is expended to move substances against their concentration gradient. Sodium moving out of cells and potassium moving into cells is an example of active transport because it requires energy to pump these ions across the cell membrane against their concentration gradients. Choices B, C, and D describe passive processes where substances move along their concentration gradients without the input of energy.

4. A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is a common initial treatment strategy?

• A. Insulin therapy
• B. Lifestyle modification and metformin
• C. Sulfonylureas
• D. Thiazolidinediones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifestyle modification and metformin. When managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, initial treatment often involves lifestyle changes such as adopting a healthy diet and increasing physical activity, along with the oral medication metformin. Insulin therapy (choice A) is usually reserved for cases where lifestyle changes and oral medications are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and thiazolidinediones (choice D) are also oral medications used in diabetes management, but they are not typically recommended as first-line treatments due to various side effects and considerations in type 2 diabetes management.

5. If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the nurse will observe which response during neuro testing, where the nurse asks the client to close his eyes and then proceeds to touch corresponding parts of the body on each side simultaneously with two sharp points?

• A. The client will not be able to distinguish between the two points.
• B. The client will feel only one point of contact.
• C. The client will accurately identify both points.
• D. The client will report no sensation in the touched areas.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced points is impaired. This results in the client not being able to differentiate between the two points when touched simultaneously. Choice B is incorrect because the client feeling only one point suggests an intact dorsal column function. Choice C is incorrect as accurately identifying both points indicates normal discrimination ability. Choice D is incorrect as reporting no sensation does not correspond to the specific impairment related to dorsal column dysfunction.

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