Nursing Elites

1. A 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller presents with facial pain and severe headache. She reports that she sometimes feels the pain in her neck or ear and that it is particularly bad during very busy times at the airport. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Migraine headache
• B. Cluster headache
• C. Temporomandibular joint syndrome
• D. Sinus headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller and presents with facial pain and severe headache that sometimes radiates to her neck or ear, aggravated by stress, is Temporomandibular joint syndrome. This syndrome involves pain in the jaw joint and the muscles controlling jaw movement, which can radiate to the surrounding areas like the neck and ear. Stress and clenching of the jaw commonly exacerbate the symptoms. Migraine headache (choice A) typically presents with other symptoms like nausea, sensitivity to light or sound, and can be triggered by various factors, not just stress. Cluster headache (choice B) is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye with associated autonomic symptoms. Sinus headache (choice D) is usually associated with sinus congestion or infection, presenting with facial pressure or pain, often worsened by bending forward.

2. A hemoglobin electrophoresis is done to evaluate for sickle cell disease. The report reveals the person has HbAS, which means the person:

• A. is normal with no sickle cell disease.
• B. is a sickle cell carrier.
• C. has sickle cell anemia.
• D. has thalassemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: HbAS indicates sickle cell trait, not full-blown sickle cell anemia. Choice A is incorrect because HbAS indicates the presence of the sickle cell trait. Choice C is incorrect as sickle cell anemia is characterized by HbSS, not HbAS. Choice D is incorrect as thalassemia is a different type of hemoglobin disorder not indicated by HbAS.

3. What is the primary therapeutic action of tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

• A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
• B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
• C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
• D. Improvement in erectile function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow. Tamsulosin, a medication commonly prescribed for BPH, works by selectively blocking alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the prostate, causing relaxation of smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation reduces the constriction in these areas, improving urinary flow and reducing symptoms such as hesitancy, urgency, frequency, and weak stream. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin primarily acts by relaxing muscles rather than directly increasing urine flow. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function.

4. A patient is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is a common initial treatment strategy?

• A. Insulin therapy
• B. Lifestyle modification and metformin
• C. Sulfonylureas
• D. Thiazolidinediones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifestyle modification and metformin. When managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, initial treatment often involves lifestyle changes such as adopting a healthy diet and increasing physical activity, along with the oral medication metformin. Insulin therapy (choice A) is usually reserved for cases where lifestyle changes and oral medications are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Sulfonylureas (choice C) and thiazolidinediones (choice D) are also oral medications used in diabetes management, but they are not typically recommended as first-line treatments due to various side effects and considerations in type 2 diabetes management.

5. What are the major mechanisms of spinal cord injuries?

• A. Hypoextension, expansion, hyperflexion
• B. Hyperflexion, expansion, hypometabolism
• C. Hypermetabolism, compression, hyperextension
• D. Hyperextension, hyperflexion, compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spinal cord injuries commonly occur due to hyperextension, hyperflexion, and compression. Hyperextension and hyperflexion refer to the excessive bending or stretching of the spinal cord, while compression is the exertion of pressure on the spinal cord. These mechanisms can lead to damage such as contusions, lacerations, and compression of the spinal cord. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the major mechanisms of spinal cord injuries.

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