Nursing Elites

1. A 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller presents with facial pain and severe headache. She reports that she sometimes feels the pain in her neck or ear and that it is particularly bad during very busy times at the airport. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Migraine headache
• B. Cluster headache
• C. Temporomandibular joint syndrome
• D. Sinus headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 25-year-old woman who works as an air traffic controller and presents with facial pain and severe headache that sometimes radiates to her neck or ear, aggravated by stress, is Temporomandibular joint syndrome. This syndrome involves pain in the jaw joint and the muscles controlling jaw movement, which can radiate to the surrounding areas like the neck and ear. Stress and clenching of the jaw commonly exacerbate the symptoms. Migraine headache (choice A) typically presents with other symptoms like nausea, sensitivity to light or sound, and can be triggered by various factors, not just stress. Cluster headache (choice B) is characterized by severe, unilateral pain around the eye with associated autonomic symptoms. Sinus headache (choice D) is usually associated with sinus congestion or infection, presenting with facial pressure or pain, often worsened by bending forward.

2. A patient presents with a chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals upper lobe cavitary lesions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Tuberculosis
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Lung cancer
• D. Sarcoidosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculosis. Cavitary lesions in the upper lobes are classic findings seen in tuberculosis. This infectious disease commonly presents with symptoms such as chronic cough, night sweats, and weight loss. Pneumonia (Choice B) typically does not present with cavitary lesions on chest X-ray. Lung cancer (Choice C) may present with similar symptoms but is less likely to cause cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. Sarcoidosis (Choice D) usually presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and non-caseating granulomas, different from the cavitary lesions described in the case.

3. Which of the following women is at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?

• A. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of high-risk human papillomavirus
• B. A 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods
• C. A 40-year-old woman who is overweight and has hypertension
• D. A 55-year-old woman who smokes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods. Obesity and prolonged exposure to estrogen unopposed by progesterone due to infrequent ovulation are significant risk factors for endometrial cancer. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the increased risk of endometrial cancer. Postmenopausal status alone (Choice A), overweight with hypertension (Choice C), and smoking (Choice D) are not the primary risk factors for endometrial cancer.

4. Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?

• A. Hemangiomas
• B. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots)
• C. Macular stains
• D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains are birthmarks that usually fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and fade over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (Mongolian spots) are blue-gray birthmarks commonly found on the lower back and buttocks of infants, which typically fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also known as salmon patches, are pink or red birthmarks that usually fade within the first few years of life. Choice D is correct because all the mentioned birthmarks tend to diminish as the child grows, unlike choices A, B, and C which do not fade or regress with age.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?

• A. Pseudomembranous colitis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Appendicitis
• D. Esophageal cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appendicitis. The symptoms described - lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and tenderness upon palpation - are classic signs of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammatory condition of the appendix that often presents with these symptoms and requires immediate medical attention. Choice A, Pseudomembranous colitis, typically presents with watery diarrhea and is associated with antibiotic use. Choice B, Peptic ulcer disease, commonly presents with epigastric pain related to meals and can be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, but it does not typically cause right lower quadrant pain. Choice D, Esophageal cancer, usually presents with symptoms related to swallowing difficulties, weight loss, and sometimes chest pain, but it is not associated with the symptoms described in the scenario.

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