ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?
- A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
- B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
- C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
- D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.
2. A 21-year-old male is being started on zidovudine (AZT) for the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates that he has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “AZT inactivates the virus and prevents recurrence of the disease.”
- B. “AZT therapy may result in the development of AZT-resistant strains.”
- C. “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it.”
- D. “AZT prevents the occurrence of opportunistic infections.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When the patient states, “AZT slows the progression of the disease but does not cure it,” it shows an understanding that zidovudine (AZT) does not provide a cure for HIV/AIDS but helps in slowing down the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect because AZT does not inactivate the virus or prevent recurrence. Choice B is incorrect as AZT resistance can develop with therapy. Choice D is incorrect because while AZT can help prevent opportunistic infections by boosting the immune system, its primary action is not the prevention of opportunistic infections.
3. A patient with hypogonadism is being treated with testosterone gel. What application instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
- B. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
- C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
- D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Testosterone gel should be applied to the chest or upper arms and allowed to dry completely before dressing to avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, genitals, scalp, or back is not recommended as these areas may lead to unintentional transfer to others, inappropriate absorption, or potential side effects. Choice A is incorrect as applying the gel to the face and neck can lead to unwanted transfer. Choice C is incorrect as applying the gel to the genitals is not the recommended site for application. Choice D is incorrect as the scalp and back are not appropriate sites for applying testosterone gel.
4. A group of nursing students and their professor are engaged in a service learning project and will be caring for patients in Haiti. What medication should be administered to prevent the development of malaria?
- A. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- B. Oprelvekin (Neumega)
- C. Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen)
- D. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Chloroquine phosphate (Aralen). Chloroquine is a medication used to prevent and treat malaria. It works by killing the malaria parasite in the red blood cells. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat various bacterial and parasitic infections, not malaria. Oprelvekin (Neumega) is a medication used to stimulate platelet production. Chloroprocaine hydrochloride (Nesacaine) is a local anesthetic used for epidural anesthesia. Therefore, Chloroquine phosphate is the appropriate medication for preventing malaria in this scenario.
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS?
- A. HIV only infects B cells
- B. HIV is a retrovirus
- C. Infection does not require a host cell receptor
- D. After infection, cell death is immediate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIV is a retrovirus that infects T cells and leads to the gradual destruction of the immune system. Choice A is incorrect because HIV infects T cells primarily, not just B cells. Choice C is incorrect because HIV infection requires host cell receptors for entry. Choice D is incorrect because cell death after HIV infection is not immediate; instead, the virus gradually weakens the immune system over time.
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