Nursing Elites

1. A patient is kept off food and fluids for 10 hours before surgery. His oral temperature at 8 a.m. is 99.8°F (37.7°C). This temperature reading probably indicates:

• A. Infection
• B. Hypothermia
• C. Anxiety
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A patient being kept off food and fluids before surgery can lead to dehydration. Dehydration can cause a slight increase in body temperature, which could explain the elevated oral temperature reading of 99.8°F (37.7°C) in this scenario. Infections are more likely to cause higher fevers, hypothermia would present with a lower temperature, and anxiety typically does not directly affect body temperature in this manner.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

• A. A client who has a BMI of 30
• B. A female client who is postmenopausal
• C. A client who has a fractured femur
• D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

3. Which of the following actions will most likely lead to a break in the sterile technique for respiratory isolation?

• A. Opening the patient’s window to the outside environment
• B. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator
• C. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the hospital corridor
• D. Failing to wear gloves when administering a bed bath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Failure to wear gloves during a bed bath can potentially introduce pathogens, compromising the sterile technique necessary for respiratory isolation. Proper hand hygiene and personal protective equipment are crucial to prevent the transmission of infectious agents in such settings.

4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

5. While teaching a newly hired nurse about varicella, a nurse in a pediatric clinic should include which of the following information?

• A. Children who have varicella are contagious until vesicles are crusted.
• B. Children who have varicella should receive the varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.
• C. Children who have varicella should be placed in airborne precautions.
• D. Children who have varicella are contagious 1-2 days before the rash appears.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Children with varicella (chickenpox) are contagious until all vesicles are crusted over. The contagious period starts 1-2 days before the rash appears and continues until all lesions are dried and crusted. It is important to educate healthcare providers about the contagious period to prevent the spread of the virus to susceptible individuals.

Similar Questions