ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. In the emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client involved in a motor vehicle crash. Findings include absent breath sounds in the left lower lobe with dyspnea, blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, heart rate 124/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.6 C (101.4 F), and SaO2 92% on room air. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain a chest X-ray.
- B. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
- C. Administer oxygen via high-flow mask.
- D. Initiate IV access.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of respiratory distress, including absent breath sounds, dyspnea, and a low SaO2 level. The priority action should be to improve oxygenation by administering oxygen via a high-flow mask. This intervention aims to increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs, helping to address the hypoxemia. Once oxygenation is optimized, further interventions, such as obtaining a chest X-ray, preparing for chest tube insertion, or initiating IV access, can be considered based on the client's condition and healthcare provider's orders.
2. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
3. Which of the following principles of primary nursing has proven the most satisfying to the patient and nurse?
- A. Administer oxygen by Venturi mask at 24% as needed
- B. Allow a 1-hour rest period between activities
- C. Patients and nurses both respond well to primary nursing care units
- D. Studies have shown that patients and nurses both respond well to primary nursing care units
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Primary nursing care units have been proven to be highly satisfying for both patients and nurses. This model promotes a consistent and continuous relationship between a patient and a primary nurse, leading to improved communication, personalized care, and overall satisfaction for both parties involved.
4. According to the principles of standard precautions, when should gloves be worn by healthcare providers?
- A. Providing a back massage
- B. Feeding a client
- C. Providing hair care
- D. Providing oral hygiene
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gloves should be worn when providing oral hygiene as it involves potential exposure to bodily fluids, aligning with the standard precautions to prevent the transmission of infections. Providing a back massage, feeding a client, and providing hair care do not typically involve direct exposure to bodily fluids, so wearing gloves is not necessary in these scenarios according to standard precautions.
5. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?
- A. Administer antibiotics
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen
- C. Administer antiviral medications
- D. Administer bronchodilators
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.
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