ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which action would break sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?
- A. Using sterile forceps instead of sterile gloves to handle a sterile item
- B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
- C. Placing a sterile object at the edge of the sterile field
- D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring it into a sterile container
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves can introduce contaminants and compromise the sterility of the item. It is crucial to maintain strict adherence to sterile technique to prevent infections and ensure patient safety during procedures.
2. A client requests the creation of a living will. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Schedule a meeting between the hospital ethics committee and the client.
- B. Evaluate the client's understanding of life-sustaining measures.
- C. Determine the client's preferences about post-mortem care.
- D. Request a conference with the client's family
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client requests the creation of a living will, the nurse's priority is to evaluate the client's understanding of life-sustaining measures. This involves ensuring that the client comprehends the implications of various life-sustaining interventions and can make informed decisions about their care preferences in the event they are unable to communicate them later. It is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's comprehension to ensure that the living will accurately reflects the client's wishes and values.
3. For a rectal examination, the patient can be directed to assume which of the following positions?
- A. Genupectoral
- B. Sims
- C. Horizontal recumbent
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct position for a rectal examination is the Sims position, where the patient lies on their left side with the upper knee flexed. This position allows for easy access and visualization of the rectal area for examination.
4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?
- A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
- B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
- C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
- D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.
5. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:
- A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
- B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
- C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
- D. Chicken bouillon
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.
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