Nursing Elites

1. A patient is being treated with raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?

• A. It is used as a selective estrogen receptor modulator to prevent bone loss.
• B. It works by decreasing bone formation and increasing bone resorption.
• C. It should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
• D. It may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent bone loss. It should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, not on an empty stomach. Choices A and B are incorrect because raloxifene is indeed a SERM that prevents bone loss, but it does not directly work by increasing bone formation or decreasing bone resorption. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common side effects of raloxifene.

2. What aspect of hormonal contraceptives places a woman at the greatest risk for the development of blood clots?

• A. Hormonal contraceptives increase serum triglyceride and cholesterol levels.
• B. Hormonal contraceptives increase platelet levels.
• C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors.
• D. Hormonal contraceptives cause injury to blood vessel linings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors, particularly factors II, VII, IX, and X. This elevation in clotting factors can predispose individuals to thromboembolic events, including blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormonal contraceptives do not have a significant effect on serum triglycerides and cholesterol, platelet levels, or causing direct injury to blood vessel linings as the primary mechanism for clot formation.

3. A patient is starting on a new oral contraceptive. What should the nurse emphasize about the timing of the medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels.
• B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
• C. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
• D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for patients taking oral contraceptives to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take oral contraceptives in the morning. Choice C is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential, but it should be at the same time each day. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives may take some time to reach peak effectiveness, so it is important to emphasize the need for consistent timing.

4. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

• A. Clarithromycin
• B. Pyrazinamide
• C. Rifapentine (Priftin)
• D. Azithromycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

5. A 51-year-old woman has the following clinical findings: thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema. These findings are consistent with:

• A. Subacute thyroiditis.
• B. Autoimmune thyroiditis.
• C. Graves disease.
• D. Hashimoto’s disease.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The clinical findings of thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema are classic features of Graves disease, an autoimmune disorder that results in hyperthyroidism. Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and pretibial edema (swelling in the lower legs) are particularly associated with Graves disease due to the autoimmune stimulation of the thyroid gland, leading to increased thyroid hormone production. Subacute thyroiditis (Choice A) typically presents with neck pain and tenderness, while autoimmune thyroiditis (Choice B) is commonly known as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which presents with hypothyroidism symptoms. Hashimoto's disease (Choice D) is characterized by goiter and hypothyroidism, which contrasts with the hyperthyroidism seen in this patient.

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