which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa epogen in a patient with renal failur
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pathophysiology

1. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in a patient with renal failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a patient with renal failure, the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is primarily aimed at addressing the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to impaired erythropoiesis. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, thereby improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This would directly address the activity intolerance commonly seen in patients with renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of using epoetin alfa in this context. Risk for infection, powerlessness, and ineffective breathing pattern are important considerations in the care of a patient with renal failure, but they are not the primary indications for using epoetin alfa.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with an altered level of consciousness and needs to assess the withdrawal reflex. Which action should the healthcare provider perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The withdrawal reflex is assessed by applying a painful stimulus and observing if the client pulls away. This response indicates a functioning reflex arc. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve testing the withdrawal reflex specifically. Checking for pupil response to light assesses the pupillary reflex, assessing the client's response to verbal commands evaluates their cognitive function, and observing the client's reaction to a cold stimulus tests for a different type of sensory response.

3. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a reduced risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it has shown a protective effect. Choice D is incorrect because while finasteride may lower the risk of prostate cancer, regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and treatment if needed.

4. What is the characteristic of the condition of leukemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'A malignant growth of white blood cells.' Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, leading to an overproduction of abnormal white blood cells. These cells are malignant and impair the normal function of healthy blood cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because leukemia does not involve skin cells or benign growths; instead, it specifically refers to the abnormal proliferation of white blood cells.

5. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.

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