Nursing Elites

1. What instruction should the nurse include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis?

• A. “Take your pill on the same day each week.”
• B. “Watch out for any unusual rash on your trunk and arms, but this isn't cause for concern.”
• C. “Remember to take your chloroquine on an empty stomach.”
• D. “We'll provide you with enough syringes and teach you how to inject the drug.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis is to “Take your pill on the same day each week.” This is essential because chloroquine is typically taken once a week on the same day to ensure consistent protection against malaria. Choice B is incorrect because while rashes are a possible side effect of chloroquine, they are not a usual occurrence and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because chloroquine does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as chloroquine is typically administered orally, not by injection.

2. Which of the following disturbances would cause a client to experience gout?

• A. Serotonin receptors
• B. Uric acid metabolism
• C. Liver function
• D. Cardiac function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gout is caused by a disturbance in uric acid metabolism, leading to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints. Serotonin receptors (Choice A) are not related to gout. Liver function (Choice C) is important for metabolism but is not directly linked to gout development. Cardiac function (Choice D) is primarily related to the heart's functioning and not associated with gout.

3. A client with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department with a complaint of double vision. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

• A. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory)
• B. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor)
• C. Cranial nerve VI (Abducens)
• D. Cranial nerve VII (Facial)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cranial nerve VI (Abducens). Chronic alcoholism can lead to damage to the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral movement of the eye. This damage can result in symptoms like double vision. Cranial nerve I (Olfactory) is responsible for the sense of smell and is not related to eye movement. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) controls most of the eye movements but is less likely to be affected in chronic alcoholism than the abducens nerve. Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for facial movements and is not associated with double vision.

4. An older adult patient comes to the clinic complaining of not being able to do what he used to be able to. You know that normal changes associated with aging include:

• A. Improved blood flow
• B. Slowed metabolic rate
• C. Increased brain weight
• D. Improved nerve fiber conduction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Normal changes associated with aging include a slowed metabolic rate and decreased brain weight. Option A, 'Improved blood flow,' is incorrect as aging is generally associated with reduced vascular health rather than improved blood flow. Option D, 'Improved nerve fiber conduction,' is incorrect as aging typically leads to a decline in nerve function rather than improvement.

5. Rhabdomyolysis can result in serious complications. In addition to muscle pain and weakness, a patient will complain of:

• A. paresthesias.
• B. bone pain.
• C. dark urine.
• D. diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark urine is a classic symptom of rhabdomyolysis. When muscle breakdown occurs, myoglobin is released into the bloodstream and filtered by the kidneys, leading to dark urine. Paresthesias (choice A) refer to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness and are not typically associated with rhabdomyolysis. Bone pain (choice B) is not a prominent symptom of rhabdomyolysis. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common complaint in rhabdomyolysis cases and is not directly related to muscle breakdown.

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