Nursing Elites

1. A 69-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a plan of care that includes administration of interferon alfa-2b. After administering interferon alfa-2b, the oncology nurse should anticipate that the patient may develop which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Profound diaphoresis
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Flu-like symptoms
• D. Cyanosis and pallor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After the administration of interferon alfa-2b, the patient may develop flu-like symptoms as an adverse effect. Flu-like symptoms are commonly associated with interferon therapy, including fever, chills, fatigue, and muscle aches. These symptoms usually subside over time. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with interferon alfa-2b administration. Profound diaphoresis is excessive sweating, decreased level of consciousness indicates neurological issues, and cyanosis and pallor suggest circulatory or respiratory problems, none of which are expected adverse effects of interferon alfa-2b.

2. Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome?

• A. Hemorrhage
• B. Pain and tissue damage
• C. Increased limb function
• D. Chronic kidney disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain and tissue damage. Compartment syndrome occurs due to increased pressure within the muscle compartments, leading to pain and tissue damage. Hemorrhage (choice A) is not a typical complication of compartment syndrome. Increased limb function (choice C) is not a complication but rather a potential improvement if the condition is managed appropriately. Chronic kidney disease (choice D) is unrelated to compartment syndrome.

3. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It decreases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It stimulates the formation of new bone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not affect the absorption of calcium from the intestines. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone; instead, it primarily works by reducing bone loss.

4. A 5-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with recurring respiratory infections. A possible cause of this condition is:

• A. Hypergammaglobulinemia
• B. Increased maternal IgG
• C. Immune insufficiency
• D. Decreased maternal antibody breakdown, resulting in hyposensitivity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immune insufficiency is a possible cause of recurring respiratory infections in a 5-month-old child. In this scenario, the child's immune system may not be functioning optimally, leading to a susceptibility to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypergammaglobulinemia refers to high levels of gamma globulins in the blood and is not typically associated with recurring respiratory infections in this context. Increased maternal IgG would provide passive immunity to the child, offering some protection against infections. Decreased maternal antibody breakdown leading to hyposensitivity is not a common cause of recurring respiratory infections in a 5-month-old child.

5. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?

• A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
• B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
• C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
• D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.

Similar Questions