Nursing Elites

1. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms?

• A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events and breast cancer.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are aware of the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it has been linked to an increased risk of this condition. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT may have positive effects on mood and energy levels for some individuals, the focus here is on the long-term risks that need to be addressed. Choice D is incorrect as HRT is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, but the primary focus of the question is on cardiovascular events and breast cancer.

2. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism?

• A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
• B. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
• C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
• D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back for better results.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel in a patient with hypogonadism is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This method helps avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not recommended as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp and back is not a standard or effective route of administration for testosterone gel. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it ensures proper application and safety.

3. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

4. In menopausal women, what is the primary goal of estrogen therapy?

• A. To relieve menopausal symptoms
• B. To prevent osteoporosis
• C. To increase calcium absorption
• D. To maintain bone strength

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of estrogen therapy in menopausal women is to prevent osteoporosis by maintaining bone density. Estrogen helps in preserving bone mass and reducing the risk of fractures. While estrogen therapy may alleviate some menopausal symptoms, such as hot flashes, its primary focus is on bone health rather than symptom management. Increasing calcium absorption and maintaining bone strength are outcomes of preventing osteoporosis rather than the primary goal of estrogen therapy.

5. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary permeability and pain?

• A. Serotonin
• B. Histamine
• C. Bradykinin
• D. Nitric oxide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinin is the correct answer. It is a potent mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and is responsible for the pain associated with inflammation. Serotonin and histamine are also mediators of inflammation, but they are not primarily known for increasing capillary permeability or inducing pain. Nitric oxide is involved in various physiological processes but is not a primary mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and pain.

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