Nursing Elites

1. How will taking an oral contraceptive affect the physiologically of an insulin-dependent diabetic patient?

• A. Increase risk of hypoglycemia
• B. Increase heart rate
• C. Increase blood glucose
• D. Increase risk of metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Taking an oral contraceptive can lead to an increase in blood glucose levels in insulin-dependent diabetic patients. This occurs due to the hormonal changes induced by the contraceptive, which can impact insulin sensitivity. Therefore, diabetic patients need to closely monitor their blood glucose levels when starting an oral contraceptive to prevent complications. The other choices are incorrect as oral contraceptives do not typically lead to an increase in heart rate, risk of hypoglycemia, or risk of metabolic alkalosis in this context.

2. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about this risk?

• A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
• B. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
• C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screenings are recommended.
• D. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screenings are unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, regular screenings are still recommended to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride has been associated with a decreased risk of prostate cancer, making regular screenings important. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride has shown a protective effect against prostate cancer, but regular screenings are still necessary to ensure early detection and monitoring.

3. A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:

• A. Alive, but less infectious
• B. Mutated, but highly infectious
• C. Normal, but not infectious
• D. Inactive, but infectious

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An attenuated antigen used in a vaccine is alive but less infectious, aiming to stimulate an immune response. Choice B is incorrect because an attenuated antigen is not highly infectious. Choice C is incorrect as the antigen is intentionally altered to be less infectious. Choice D is incorrect as an attenuated antigen is not infectious.

4. Which immunoglobulin presents the first challenge to the antigen?

• A. IgA
• B. IgG
• C. IgM
• D. IgE

Correct answer: C

Rationale: IgM is the first immunoglobulin to challenge the antigen during an immune response. IgM is the primary antibody produced during the initial or primary immune response. It is efficient in agglutination and complement activation, making it crucial in the early stages of defense. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is the most abundant antibody in circulation and is involved in secondary immune responses. IgE is primarily associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections. Therefore, IgM is the correct choice as it acts first during the immune response, while the other immunoglobulins have different roles and functions.

5. Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the following exudates is composed of a large accumulation of leukocytes?

• A. Serous
• B. Purulent
• C. Fibrinous
• D. Hemorrhagic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purulent. Purulent exudates, or pus, consist primarily of leukocytes and dead cells, indicating a bacterial infection. Serous exudates contain a thin, watery fluid with few leukocytes. Fibrinous exudates are rich in fibrin and are commonly seen in severe inflammation. Hemorrhagic exudates contain red blood cells due to blood vessel damage.

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