ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. How will taking an oral contraceptive affect the physiologically of an insulin-dependent diabetic patient?
- A. Increase risk of hypoglycemia
- B. Increase heart rate
- C. Increase blood glucose
- D. Increase risk of metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Taking an oral contraceptive can lead to an increase in blood glucose levels in insulin-dependent diabetic patients. This occurs due to the hormonal changes induced by the contraceptive, which can impact insulin sensitivity. Therefore, diabetic patients need to closely monitor their blood glucose levels when starting an oral contraceptive to prevent complications. The other choices are incorrect as oral contraceptives do not typically lead to an increase in heart rate, risk of hypoglycemia, or risk of metabolic alkalosis in this context.
2. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?
- A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
- B. To increase cardiac output.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To prevent the development of angina.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.
3. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?
- A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
- B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
- C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a newly inserted pacemaker. What is the most important nursing action post-procedure?
- A. Monitor the insertion site for signs of infection.
- B. Educate the client about activity restrictions.
- C. Monitor the client's heart rate and rhythm.
- D. Assess the client's lung sounds for signs of fluid overload.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Post-procedure, monitoring the insertion site for signs of infection is crucial because it helps in early detection of any potential complications such as infection. While educating the client about activity restrictions, monitoring the client's heart rate and rhythm, and assessing lung sounds for signs of fluid overload are important aspects of care, the immediate priority post-procedure is to prevent infection at the insertion site, which could lead to serious complications.
5. A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?
- A. CD4 helper T cells
- B. CD8 helper T cells
- C. CDC cells
- D. CDC10 cells
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a person diagnosed with AIDS, a decrease in CD4 helper T cells is expected. These cells are critical for the immune system's proper functioning, and their reduction weakens the body's ability to fight infections. CD8 helper T cells (Choice B) are not typically decreased in AIDS. CDC cells (Choice C) and CDC10 cells (Choice D) are not relevant terms in this context, making them incorrect choices.
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