Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been prescribed mifepristone (RU-486) to terminate a pregnancy. How does this drug achieve its therapeutic effect?

• A. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.
• B. By increasing estrogen levels, which induce uterine contractions.
• C. By altering the uterine lining, preventing implantation.
• D. By stimulating uterine contractions, which expel the embryo.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mifepristone (RU-486) functions by inhibiting the action of progesterone, a hormone crucial for maintaining pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the uterine environment necessary for pregnancy continuation, ultimately leading to termination. Choice B is incorrect because mifepristone does not increase estrogen levels; instead, it acts on progesterone. Choice C is incorrect as mifepristone's mechanism does not involve altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Choice D is incorrect because mifepristone does not directly stimulate uterine contractions; its primary action is through progesterone inhibition.

2. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What critical information should the nurse provide during patient education?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so adequate calcium intake is important.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
• D. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of breast cancer, so regular mammograms are essential.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed tamoxifen, a critical piece of information that the nurse should provide during patient education is that tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain is a possible side effect of tamoxifen, but it is not a critical piece of information compared to the risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is incorrect because tamoxifen is actually used to treat breast cancer, not increase its risk.

3. What is the cause of swelling during acute inflammation?

• A. Collagenase
• B. Fluid exudate
• C. Lymphocytic margination
• D. Anaerobic glycolysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swelling during acute inflammation is primarily caused by the accumulation of fluid exudate in the affected tissues. This fluid exudate contains proteins and cells that leak from blood vessels due to increased vascular permeability. Collagenase (Choice A) is an enzyme that breaks down collagen and is not directly responsible for swelling. Lymphocytic margination (Choice C) is the process where white blood cells line up along the blood vessel walls, which does not directly cause swelling. Anaerobic glycolysis (Choice D) is a metabolic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen and is not related to the mechanism of swelling in acute inflammation.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:

• A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
• B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
• C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
• D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.

5. As you are walking in the park, a huge black Labrador runs up to you and places his paws on your shoulders. Immediately your heart starts racing, you feel palpitations, anxiety, and your hands become a little shaky. The nurse knows that this response is primarily caused by:

• A. cerebral cortex.
• B. somatic nervous system.
• C. limbic system.
• D. autonomic nervous system.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions like heart rate, respiration, and sweating. In the given scenario, the 'fight or flight' response is activated, leading to increased heart rate, palpitations, anxiety, and shaky hands. The cerebral cortex is involved in conscious thought processes and decision-making, not the immediate physiological response observed here. The somatic nervous system regulates voluntary movements, while the limbic system is responsible for emotions and memory, but the autonomic nervous system is primarily responsible for the physiological responses seen in this situation.

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