ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A patient has been prescribed mifepristone (RU-486) to terminate a pregnancy. How does this drug achieve its therapeutic effect?
- A. By inhibiting the action of progesterone, which is necessary to maintain pregnancy.
- B. By increasing estrogen levels, which induce uterine contractions.
- C. By altering the uterine lining, preventing implantation.
- D. By stimulating uterine contractions, which expel the embryo.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mifepristone (RU-486) functions by inhibiting the action of progesterone, a hormone crucial for maintaining pregnancy. By blocking progesterone, mifepristone disrupts the uterine environment necessary for pregnancy continuation, ultimately leading to termination. Choice B is incorrect because mifepristone does not increase estrogen levels; instead, it acts on progesterone. Choice C is incorrect as mifepristone's mechanism does not involve altering the uterine lining to prevent implantation. Choice D is incorrect because mifepristone does not directly stimulate uterine contractions; its primary action is through progesterone inhibition.
2. Which of the following is found in clients with Parkinson’s disease?
- A. Mobility and functioning
- B. The liver and kidneys
- C. Too much dopamine in the brain
- D. Skeletal muscle flaccidity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Too much dopamine in the brain. Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, not an excess. This deficiency leads to the motor symptoms associated with the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Mobility and functioning are affected in Parkinson's disease due to the lack of dopamine, not an excess. The liver and kidneys are not directly related to Parkinson's disease. Skeletal muscle flaccidity is not typically a primary symptom of Parkinson's disease, which is more characterized by rigidity and tremors.
3. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:
- A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
- B. negative for estrogen receptor.
- C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
- D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.
4. An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a sex hormone deficiency and has begun a course of treatment with testosterone. What change in the boy's health status would necessitate a stop to the course of treatment?
- A. Excessive growth in height
- B. Signs of puberty
- C. Recurrent urinary tract infections
- D. Increased blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In an 8-year-old boy with a sex hormone deficiency being treated with testosterone, the appearance of signs of puberty would necessitate stopping the treatment. Testosterone therapy in this case aims to supplement the deficient sex hormones but should not trigger premature puberty. Excessive growth in height (choice A) is not a typical reason to stop testosterone therapy. Recurrent urinary tract infections (choice C) and increased blood pressure (choice D) are not directly related to testosterone therapy in this context.
5. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What critical contraindication should the nurse review with the patient?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. Use of antihypertensive medications
- C. History of hypertension
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, which can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice B (Use of antihypertensive medications) is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice C (History of hypertension) is incorrect as it is not a contraindication for sildenafil; in fact, sildenafil is sometimes used in patients with hypertension. Choice D (History of peptic ulcer disease) is also incorrect as it is not a critical contraindication for sildenafil use.
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