ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by reducing bone resorption (breakdown) and maintaining or increasing bone density. This mechanism helps in preventing further bone loss and can even increase bone mass. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone (choice A), increase calcium absorption in the intestines (choice C), or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys (choice D).
2. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:
- A. an ominous sign.
- B. normal and termed the postictal period.
- C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
- D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.
3. A patient is starting on medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
- D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Patients starting on medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis should be instructed to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated to the medication and not a specific concern with its use. Choice D is incorrect as patients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider, even if side effects occur.
4. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is significantly higher in the right arm than in the left arm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
- A. Acute myocardial infarction
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Aortic dissection
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe chest pain that can radiate to the back. The discrepancy in blood pressure between the arms (higher in the right arm) is known as a 'pulse deficit' and is a classic finding in aortic dissection. This condition involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, leading to the abnormal flow of blood within the aortic wall. Acute myocardial infarction (choice A) presents with chest pain but typically does not cause discrepancies in blood pressure between arms. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) usually presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing but does not cause unequal blood pressures in the arms. Pericarditis (choice D) can cause chest pain exacerbated by breathing or lying down, but it does not typically lead to differences in blood pressure between arms.
5. In nephritic syndrome compared to nephrotic syndrome, there is:
- A. higher amounts of albuminuria.
- B. negligible hematuria or absence of hematuria.
- C. presence of red blood cell casts in the urine.
- D. hypoalbuminemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In nephritic syndrome, the presence of red blood cell casts in the urine is a characteristic finding, reflecting glomerular inflammation and damage. This differentiates it from nephrotic syndrome, where red blood cell casts are typically absent. Choice A is incorrect because nephritic syndrome usually presents with less albuminuria compared to nephrotic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as hematuria is a common feature of nephritic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hypoalbuminemia is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.
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