Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
• D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by reducing bone resorption (breakdown) and maintaining or increasing bone density. This mechanism helps in preventing further bone loss and can even increase bone mass. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone (choice A), increase calcium absorption in the intestines (choice C), or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys (choice D).

2. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?

• A. Hypotonia
• B. Hyperreflexia
• C. Muscle atrophy
• D. Fasciculations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.

3. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

• A. Infective endocarditis
• B. Coronary artery disease
• C. Mitral valve stenosis
• D. Aortic regurgitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with an astrocytoma. The client asks, 'What do astrocytes do in the brain?' What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Astrocytes help to nourish and support neurons in the brain.
• B. Astrocytes are a type of neuron that transmit electrical signals.
• C. Astrocytes are involved in immune responses in the brain.
• D. Astrocytes help regulate blood flow in the brain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Astrocytes play a crucial role in supporting and nourishing neurons by providing metabolic support, maintaining the blood-brain barrier, and regulating the chemical environment of the brain. While astrocytes are essential for brain function, they are not neurons and do not transmit electrical signals (Choice B). Astrocytes are not primarily involved in immune responses in the brain (Choice C) or in regulating blood flow in the brain (Choice D), although they indirectly influence blood flow through their support functions.

5. In a 41-year-old male patient with a complex medical history diagnosed with secondary hypogonadism, which of the following health problems is the most likely etiology of his diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes
• B. Mumps
• C. An inflammatory process in the testicles
• D. Testicular trauma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inflammatory process in the testicles. Secondary hypogonadism in males can be caused by various factors, including an inflammatory process in the testicles. Mumps (choice B) can lead to orchitis but is less common in adults. Type 1 diabetes (choice A) is not a common cause of secondary hypogonadism. Testicular trauma (choice D) can cause primary hypogonadism but is less likely to cause secondary hypogonadism.

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