a patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene evista what is the primary therapeutic action of this medication
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by reducing bone resorption (breakdown) and maintaining or increasing bone density. This mechanism helps in preventing further bone loss and can even increase bone mass. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone (choice A), increase calcium absorption in the intestines (choice C), or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys (choice D).

2. A patient is diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. She is prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). What effect will this medication provide in the treatment of ischemic heart disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication that promotes the growth of white blood cells. In the context of ischemic heart disease, promoting angiogenesis, the formation of new blood vessels, can improve blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing ischemia and potentially improving cardiac function. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choices A and B are incorrect because filgrastim does not directly affect platelet levels. Choice D is also incorrect as filgrastim does not prevent thrombus formation.

3. When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, the condition is called:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autoimmunity is the correct term for a condition where the body's immune system mistakenly targets its own tissues. Alloimmunity (Choice A) refers to an immune response against foreign tissue. Opsonization (Choice B) is a process where pathogens are marked for destruction by immune cells. Hypersensitivity (Choice D) involves an exaggerated immune response against antigens.

4. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

5. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

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