ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by reducing bone resorption (breakdown) and maintaining or increasing bone density. This mechanism helps in preventing further bone loss and can even increase bone mass. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone (choice A), increase calcium absorption in the intestines (choice C), or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys (choice D).
2. A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be stopped if side effects occur.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it is typically prescribed continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because patients should not stop the medication if side effects occur without consulting their healthcare provider.
3. A woman is being treated with clomiphene citrate for the treatment of infertility. She states to the nurse that she has seen an increase in vaginal discharge. The nurse knows that this effect is related to:
- A. Increased blood flow to the vaginal area.
- B. Increased cervical mucus production.
- C. Increased production of vaginal secretions.
- D. Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increased production of vaginal secretions.' Clomiphene citrate affects cervical mucus production, leading to an increase in vaginal secretions. This effect is beneficial for fertility as it helps create a more hospitable environment for sperm transport. Choice A, 'Increased blood flow to the vaginal area,' is incorrect as the increase in vaginal discharge is primarily due to changes in cervical mucus. Choice B, 'Increased cervical mucus production,' is partially correct but does not fully explain the increase in vaginal secretions. Choice D, 'Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal,' is not directly related to the effect seen with clomiphene citrate treatment for infertility.
4. During a well-child checkup, a mother tells Nurse Rio about a recent situation in which her child needed to be disciplined by her husband. The child was slapped in the face for not getting her husband breakfast on Saturday, despite being told on Thursday never to prepare food for him. Nurse Rio analyzes the family system and concludes it is dysfunctional. All of the following factors contribute to this dysfunction except:
- A. Conflictual relationships between parents.
- B. Inconsistent communication patterns.
- C. Rigid, authoritarian roles.
- D. Use of violence to establish control.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a dysfunctional family system, conflictual relationships, inconsistent communication patterns, and the use of violence to establish control are factors contributing to dysfunction. However, rigid, authoritarian roles, though also dysfunctional, are not directly linked to the use of violence for control.
5. What physiological reaction occurs in the body with the 'Fight or flight' response?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Constricted pupils
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 'fight or flight' response is a primal physiological reaction that prepares the body to respond to a perceived threat or danger. This response triggers an increase in heart rate to pump more blood to the muscles and vital organs, preparing the body for action. Choice B, 'Constricted pupils,' is part of the 'fight or flight' response as well, as it helps improve focus and vision. Choice C, 'Decreased blood pressure,' is incorrect because blood pressure typically increases to ensure adequate circulation during the 'fight or flight' response. Choice D, 'Decreased heart rate,' is incorrect as the heart rate increases to supply more oxygen and nutrients to the body during times of stress.
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