ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?
- A. Orally, with food
- B. Orally, on an empty stomach
- C. Intramuscularly
- D. Intravenously, as a bolus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.
2. What is the major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) in a patient with chronic renal failure?
- A. Decreases neutropenia related to chemotherapy
- B. Decreases white blood cells related to infection
- C. Decreases growth of blood vessels due to ischemia
- D. Decreases platelet count related to bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) is to stimulate the production of neutrophils, thereby decreasing neutropenia in patients undergoing chemotherapy. This medication helps the bone marrow produce more white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to reduce the risk of infections associated with low neutrophil counts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because filgrastim does not decrease white blood cells related to infection, growth of blood vessels, or platelet count related to bleeding.
3. What is the cause of swelling during acute inflammation?
- A. Collagenase
- B. Fluid exudate
- C. Lymphocytic margination
- D. Anaerobic glycolysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Swelling during acute inflammation is primarily caused by the accumulation of fluid exudate in the affected tissues. This fluid exudate contains proteins and cells that leak from blood vessels due to increased vascular permeability. Collagenase (Choice A) is an enzyme that breaks down collagen and is not directly responsible for swelling. Lymphocytic margination (Choice C) is the process where white blood cells line up along the blood vessel walls, which does not directly cause swelling. Anaerobic glycolysis (Choice D) is a metabolic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen and is not related to the mechanism of swelling in acute inflammation.
4. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of bone fractures
- C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
- D. Increased risk of mood changes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.
5. A female patient is concerned about the side effects of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What common side effect should the nurse explain?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hair loss
- C. Increased libido
- D. Decreased energy levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) due to hormonal changes. Patients should be informed about this possibility as part of their treatment plan. Hair loss (Choice B) is not a common side effect of HRT. Increased libido (Choice C) and decreased energy levels (Choice D) are not typically associated with HRT side effects. Therefore, the nurse should focus on discussing weight gain with the patient.
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