a patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and will soon begin first line drug treatment how will rifampin most likely be administered to this pat
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.

2. After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Viruses replicate their genetic material inside host cells, which is a fundamental aspect of their life cycle. Choice A is incorrect because viruses contain either RNA or DNA. Choice B is incorrect as viruses cannot reproduce independently and rely on host cells for replication. Choice D is incorrect as viruses are not easily killed by antimicrobials due to their unique structure and mechanisms of infection.

3. Which of the following describes inflammation of the bladder lining?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cystitis. Cystitis specifically refers to the inflammation of the bladder lining. Choice A, Incontinence, refers to the loss of bladder control and is not related to inflammation. Choice B, Pyelonephritis, is the inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis, not the bladder lining. Choice C, Urinary calculi, refers to the formation of stones in the urinary tract and is not related to bladder inflammation.

4. A patient has been prescribed an estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive. The nurse should emphasize that the risk of thrombophlebitis is most likely in patients who:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoke cigarettes. Smoking is a significant risk factor for thrombophlebitis, especially when combined with estrogen-progestin contraceptives. Choice A, being diabetic, does not directly increase the risk of thrombophlebitis in this context. Choice C, having a history of hypertension, is not a primary risk factor for thrombophlebitis. Choice D, being older than 40, is not the most likely factor associated with an increased risk of thrombophlebitis in patients taking estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives.

5. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

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