Nursing Elites

1. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?

• A. Orally, with food
• B. Orally, on an empty stomach
• C. Intramuscularly
• D. Intravenously, as a bolus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.

2. Which of the following is a common cause of mechanical small intestine obstruction?

• A. Infection
• B. Postoperative adhesions
• C. Tumors
• D. Foreign body

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative adhesions are a common cause of mechanical small intestine obstruction. Adhesions can form after abdominal surgery, causing bands of scar tissue that may twist or pull the intestines, leading to obstruction. This is a more common cause compared to infection, tumors, or foreign bodies. Infection may lead to inflammation but is not a typical cause of mechanical obstruction. Tumors and foreign bodies can cause blockages but are less common than postoperative adhesions.

3. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?

• A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. Entrance inhibitors
• D. Highly active antiretroviral therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.

4. Cellular swelling is:

• A. Irreversible
• B. Evident early in all types of cellular injury
• C. Manifested by decreased intracellular sodium
• D. None of the above is correct

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cellular swelling is indeed evident early in all types of cellular injury. This occurs due to the influx of water into the cell, leading to swelling. Choice A is incorrect because cellular swelling is reversible if the injury is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because cellular swelling is not manifested by decreased intracellular sodium; in fact, it is associated with increased intracellular sodium due to water influx. Choice D is incorrect as option B is the correct statement.

5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

• A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
• B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
• C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
• D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

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