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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.

2. A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following agents will assist in raising the patient's hemoglobin levels?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production and is commonly used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure. By increasing red blood cell production, epoetin alfa helps raise hemoglobin levels in these patients. Pentoxifylline (Choice B) is not indicated for raising hemoglobin levels in chronic renal failure patients; it is a peripheral vasodilator used to improve blood flow. Estazolam (Choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for treating insomnia and has no role in raising hemoglobin levels. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide (Choice D) is a cough suppressant and is not used to raise hemoglobin levels in patients with chronic renal failure.

3. Prior to administering iodoquinol (Yodoxin), what assessment should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering iodoquinol (Yodoxin), the nurse should assess for allergy to iodine since iodoquinol is a medication containing iodine. Assessing for skin eruptions (choice C) and ophthalmic symptoms (choice D) are not specifically related to iodoquinol administration. Noting the time the patient last ate (choice B) may be relevant for certain medications but is not directly related to assessing for an allergy to iodine in this case.

4. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, such as Evista, works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This medication is beneficial in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by slowing down the breakdown of bone tissue, thereby reducing the risk of fractures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

5. A 55-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should inform the patient that finasteride may take several months to improve symptoms of BPH. It is essential for patients to understand the delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and compliance. Choice A is incorrect because there is no significant interaction between finasteride and over-the-counter antacids. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride is more commonly associated with decreased libido rather than increased libido. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is known to reduce hair growth rather than increase it.

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