question

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. What is the main function of the mitochondria in a cell?

A. To produce energy in the form of ATP
B. To synthesize proteins
C. To store genetic information
D. To regulate cell growth

Correct answer: A: To produce energy in the form of ATP

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To produce energy in the form of ATP. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell because they are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP through a process called cellular respiration. This energy is essential for various cellular activities. Choice B is incorrect because protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes. Choice C is incorrect as the genetic information is stored in the cell's nucleus. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of cell growth involves various other organelles and processes within the cell.

2. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?

A. Autoimmune
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Alloimmune
D. Allergic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, an alloimmune reaction occurs. In this situation, the mother's immune system recognizes the fetus as foreign due to differences in antigens, leading to an immune response against the fetus. Choice A, 'Autoimmune,' is incorrect because it refers to the immune system mistakenly attacking the body's own cells and tissues. Choice B, 'Anaphylaxis,' is not the correct answer as it is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. Choice D, 'Allergic,' is also incorrect as it refers to an immune response triggered by allergens, not antigens expressed by the fetus.

3. A client with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

A. Administer a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
B. Initiate airway clearance techniques.
C. Encourage the client to maintain an active lifestyle.
D. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a pulmonary exacerbation in cystic fibrosis, the priority intervention is to initiate airway clearance techniques. These techniques help clear mucus from the airways, improving ventilation and reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Administering a high-calorie, high-protein diet is beneficial for overall nutrition but is not the priority during an exacerbation. Encouraging an active lifestyle is important for long-term health but does not address the immediate need for managing exacerbations. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is important, but initiating airway clearance techniques takes precedence in the management of pulmonary exacerbations in cystic fibrosis.

4. Which of the following steps occurs first during hemostasis?

A. Vascular spasm
B. Platelet plug
C. Coagulation
D. Dissolution of the clot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vascular spasm is the initial step in hemostasis, where blood vessels constrict to reduce blood flow to the injured area. This constriction helps limit blood loss until further steps like platelet plug formation and coagulation can take place. Platelet plug formation and coagulation occur after the vascular spasm, making them incorrect choices. Dissolution of the clot happens much later in the healing process, after the injury has sufficiently healed.

5. Which of the following disturbances would cause a client to experience gout?

A. Serotonin receptors
B. Uric acid metabolism
C. Liver function
D. Cardiac function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gout is caused by a disturbance in uric acid metabolism, leading to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints. Serotonin receptors (Choice A) are not related to gout. Liver function (Choice C) is important for metabolism but is not directly linked to gout development. Cardiac function (Choice D) is primarily related to the heart's functioning and not associated with gout.