a patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure which of the following agents will assist in raising the patients hemoglobin levels
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2

1. A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following agents will assist in raising the patient's hemoglobin levels?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production and is commonly used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure. By increasing red blood cell production, epoetin alfa helps raise hemoglobin levels in these patients. Pentoxifylline (Choice B) is not indicated for raising hemoglobin levels in chronic renal failure patients; it is a peripheral vasodilator used to improve blood flow. Estazolam (Choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for treating insomnia and has no role in raising hemoglobin levels. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide (Choice D) is a cough suppressant and is not used to raise hemoglobin levels in patients with chronic renal failure.

2. During patient teaching, a young woman asks the nurse the following question: 'If I get pregnant on the 'pill,' should I continue to take it?' What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: This is a personal choice for each woman.' If a woman becomes pregnant while taking birth control pills, it is generally recommended to discontinue them as they can potentially harm the fetus. However, the decision to continue or discontinue the pill in case of pregnancy is ultimately a personal choice for each woman. Choice A is incorrect because birth control pills are meant to prevent pregnancy, but if a woman becomes pregnant while taking them, the situation changes. Choice B is incorrect because birth control pills do not cause miscarriage; they are intended to prevent pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect because while it is generally advised to discontinue the pill if pregnancy occurs, the decision ultimately depends on the individual circumstances and preferences of the woman.

3. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for applying testosterone gel is to apply it to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing. This is important to prevent the transfer of the medication to others. Applying it to the face and neck (Choice A) is incorrect as these areas are not recommended. Similarly, applying it to the scalp and back (Choice C) or the genitals (Choice D) is also incorrect and can lead to inappropriate absorption or undesirable effects.

4. When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.

5. A 70-year-old client presents with weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot. The client also exhibits speech difficulties. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cerebral infarction (stroke). In this case, the client's symptoms of weakness and sensory loss in the right hand and foot, along with speech difficulties, are indicative of a stroke. These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals experiencing a cerebral infarction, where a blockage in blood flow to the brain leads to neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are less likely as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) typically have temporary symptoms with no permanent damage, brain tumors may present with a different set of symptoms depending on their location, and multiple sclerosis usually presents with a relapsing-remitting pattern of neurological symptoms rather than sudden onset unilateral deficits.

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