ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following agents will assist in raising the patient's hemoglobin levels?
- A. Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit)
- B. Pentoxifylline (Pentoxil)
- C. Estazolam (ProSom)
- D. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production and is commonly used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure. By increasing red blood cell production, epoetin alfa helps raise hemoglobin levels in these patients. Pentoxifylline (Choice B) is not indicated for raising hemoglobin levels in chronic renal failure patients; it is a peripheral vasodilator used to improve blood flow. Estazolam (Choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for treating insomnia and has no role in raising hemoglobin levels. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide (Choice D) is a cough suppressant and is not used to raise hemoglobin levels in patients with chronic renal failure.
2. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding potential side effects?
- A. Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea
- B. Increased appetite, insomnia, and fatigue
- C. Breast tenderness, headaches, and dizziness
- D. Fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea are common side effects of oral contraceptives. Weight gain may occur due to fluid retention or changes in metabolism. Mood changes can be caused by hormonal fluctuations. Nausea is a common side effect that usually improves after a few months of use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect common side effects associated with oral contraceptives. Increased appetite, insomnia, breast tenderness, headaches, dizziness, fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain are not typically reported side effects of oral contraceptives.
3. What is the primary action of bisphosphonates when prescribed to a patient with osteoporosis?
- A. It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density.
- B. It stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines, which helps build stronger bones.
- D. It decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys, helping to maintain bone density.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It inhibits bone resorption, which helps maintain bone density." Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption carried out by osteoclasts, thereby preventing the breakdown of bones and helping to maintain or increase bone density in patients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bisphosphonates do not directly stimulate new bone formation, increase calcium absorption in the intestines, or decrease calcium excretion by the kidneys.
4. A 30-year-old female has suffered a third-degree burn to her hand after spilling hot oil in a kitchen accident. Which teaching point by a member of her care team is most appropriate?
- A. Your hand will likely heal without the need for a skin graft.
- B. You might experience a loss of sensation in your hand after it heals.
- C. Be sure to keep your hand elevated to reduce swelling.
- D. We will need to monitor you for infection as your hand heals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In third-degree burns, infection is a major concern due to the extensive damage to the skin. Monitoring for infection is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because third-degree burns often require skin grafts due to the severity of the injury. Choice B is incorrect as loss of sensation is more common in nerve damage and not necessarily in burns. Choice C is incorrect because while elevation can help with swelling in minor burns, it is not the most critical concern in third-degree burns.
5. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:
- A. an ominous sign.
- B. normal and termed the postictal period.
- C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
- D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.
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