Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?

• A. Primary aldosteronism
• B. Essential hypertension
• C. White coat hypertension
• D. Prehypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is a common cause of secondary hypertension. In primary aldosteronism, there is an overproduction of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion, ultimately resulting in high blood pressure. Essential hypertension (Choice B) is the most common type of hypertension, but it is considered primary hypertension, not secondary. White coat hypertension (Choice C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety but not in daily life. Prehypertension (Choice D) is a condition where blood pressure levels are elevated but not high enough to be classified as hypertension.

2. What therapeutic effect is expected from tamsulosin (Flomax) in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

• A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
• B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
• C. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
• D. Improvement in erectile function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.' Tamsulosin is an alpha-blocker that specifically targets alpha-1 receptors in the prostate and bladder neck, causing relaxation of smooth muscles. This relaxation results in improved urinary flow and reduced symptoms of BPH. Choice B is incorrect because while tamsulosin does improve urinary flow, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because tamsulosin does not reduce prostate size. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin does not have a primary effect on erectile function.

3. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within

• A. 48 hours.
• B. a week to 10 days.
• C. 2 to 3 weeks.
• D. 4 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.

4. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
• D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This is crucial for the drug to work optimally. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not necessarily need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice C is not directly related to the medication's administration and is not a common teaching point for this drug. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to adverse effects and is not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider.

5. Which of the following chronic inflammatory skin diseases is characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation?

• A. Psoriasis
• B. Melanoma
• C. Atopic dermatitis
• D. Urticaria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Psoriasis is the correct answer because it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by features such as angiogenesis (formation of new blood vessels), immune cell activation (especially T cells), and excessive keratinocyte proliferation. This results in the typical symptoms seen in psoriasis, such as red, scaly patches on the skin. Melanoma is a type of skin cancer arising from melanocytes, not characterized by the features mentioned. Atopic dermatitis is a different skin condition involving eczematous changes, not specifically associated with the described characteristics of psoriasis. Urticaria is a skin condition characterized by hives and does not involve the same pathophysiological processes as psoriasis.

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