Nursing Elites

1. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

• A. They improve treatment adherence.
• B. They reduce the duration of illness.
• C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
• D. They prevent opportunistic infections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

2. When a client has their 'fight or flight' system activated, which below is a manifestation of that?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Decreased respiration rate
• D. Increased glucose levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased glucose levels.' When the 'fight or flight' system is activated, the body releases glucose to provide energy for the impending response. This increase in glucose levels helps fuel the body's reaction to the perceived threat or stressor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because during the 'fight or flight' response, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration rate typically increase to prepare the body to confront or flee from the perceived danger.

3. A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?

• A. The man will undergo conservative treatment for TB using adjuvant medications.
• B. The man will be treated for TB using first-line antitubercular drugs.
• C. The man will be monitored closely to determine if treatment is necessary.
• D. The man will be screened again in 10 to 12 weeks to determine if he has developed active TB.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient is diagnosed with latent TB infection, the standard approach involves treating them with first-line antitubercular drugs to prevent the progression to active TB. Adjuvant medications are not typically used for latent TB. Close monitoring without initiating treatment can lead to the development of active TB, so immediate treatment is crucial. Screening the individual again in 10 to 12 weeks does not address the immediate need for treatment of latent TB, which is essential to prevent the progression of the disease.

4. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

5. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?

• A. Hypotonia
• B. Hyperreflexia
• C. Muscle atrophy
• D. Fasciculations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.

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