Nursing Elites

1. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

• A. They improve treatment adherence.
• B. They reduce the duration of illness.
• C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
• D. They prevent opportunistic infections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

2. A nurse practitioner is seeing a client in the clinic with a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What should the nurse anticipate as the priority action?

• A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn.
• B. Start an IV line and administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• C. Isolate the client to prevent the spread of infection.
• D. Perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the first dose of antibiotics immediately after blood cultures are drawn for suspected bacterial meningitis. This is crucial to initiate treatment promptly and improve patient outcomes. Starting an IV line and administering corticosteroids (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but administering antibiotics is the priority. Isolating the client (Choice C) is important to prevent the spread of infection but not the priority over initiating antibiotic therapy. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice D) may confirm the diagnosis, but treatment should not be delayed for this step in suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.

3. Which of the following is an example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

• A. Anaphylaxis
• B. Indigestion
• C. Beta cell destruction
• D. ABO transfusion reaction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a classic example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. In Type 1 hypersensitivity, allergens trigger an immediate immune response mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This reaction can result in symptoms ranging from mild itching and hives to severe conditions like anaphylaxis, which is a life-threatening emergency. The other options, such as indigestion (choice B), beta cell destruction (choice C), and ABO transfusion reaction (choice D), are not classified as Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. Indigestion is typically related to gastrointestinal disturbances, beta cell destruction is associated with autoimmune conditions like type 1 diabetes, and ABO transfusion reaction involves antibodies targeting incompatible blood groups, which is a different immune mechanism compared to Type 1 hypersensitivity.

4. A patient has been prescribed an estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive. The nurse should emphasize that the risk of thrombophlebitis is most likely in patients who:

• A. Are diabetic.
• B. Smoke cigarettes.
• C. Have a history of hypertension.
• D. Are older than 40.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoke cigarettes. Smoking is a significant risk factor for thrombophlebitis, especially when combined with estrogen-progestin contraceptives. Choice A, being diabetic, does not directly increase the risk of thrombophlebitis in this context. Choice C, having a history of hypertension, is not a primary risk factor for thrombophlebitis. Choice D, being older than 40, is not the most likely factor associated with an increased risk of thrombophlebitis in patients taking estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives.

5. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?

• A. Herpes simplex I virus
• B. Bullous impetigo
• C. Necrotizing fasciitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.

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