Nursing Elites

1. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?

• A. Assisting the client in pre-planning for this event.
• B. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary.
• C. Teaching the client ways to protect the scalp.
• D. Telling the client that there are worse side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

2. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

3. A nurse working with oncology clients knows that an age-related decrease in which function increases the older client’s susceptibility to infection during chemotherapy?

• A. Immune function.
• B. Kidney function.
• C. Liver function.
• D. Cardiac function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: As people age, the immune system becomes less efficient, a phenomenon known as immunosenescence. This decline in immune function includes reduced production of immune cells (such as T cells and B cells) and diminished responses to infections. During chemotherapy, which further suppresses the immune system, older clients are at a significantly higher risk of developing infections due to this age-related decrease in immune function. This is especially concerning because chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include immune cells, making it even harder for the body to fight off infections.

4. The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Presence of mucous membranes
• C. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• D. Inspiratory stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.

5. Nurse Jane is providing care for a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Which of the following interventions would be the priority?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed
• B. Administer steroids as prescribed
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Administer diuretics as prescribed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce the pressure on the superior vena cava, improve venous return, and facilitate breathing in clients with superior vena cava syndrome. Administering steroids (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority in the immediate care of a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may help improve oxygenation but does not directly address the underlying issue of venous congestion. Administering diuretics (Choice D) may be contraindicated as it can further decrease preload and worsen the condition in superior vena cava syndrome.

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