ATI RN
Oncology Questions
1. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?
- A. Assisting the client in pre-planning for this event.
- B. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary.
- C. Teaching the client ways to protect the scalp.
- D. Telling the client that there are worse side effects.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.
2. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement
- B. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider
- C. Continue the current digoxin dose
- D. Administer Digibind
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a potassium supplement (choice A) without healthcare provider guidance can worsen the situation. Continuing the current digoxin dose (choice C) can further increase the risk of toxicity. Administering Digibind (choice D) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity, not for addressing low potassium levels.
3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure weekly.
- C. Notify your provider if you develop a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid using salt substitutes to prevent hyperkalemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to notify the provider if they develop a persistent cough. A persistent cough is a common adverse effect of Captopril and other ACE inhibitors. It is essential for the client to inform their healthcare provider promptly if this side effect occurs, as it may indicate a potentially serious issue that needs medical attention.
4. What is the major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) in a patient with chronic renal failure?
- A. Decreases neutropenia related to chemotherapy
- B. Decreases white blood cells related to infection
- C. Decreases growth of blood vessels due to ischemia
- D. Decreases platelet count related to bleeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) is to stimulate the production of neutrophils, thereby decreasing neutropenia in patients undergoing chemotherapy. This medication helps the bone marrow produce more white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to reduce the risk of infections associated with low neutrophil counts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because filgrastim does not decrease white blood cells related to infection, growth of blood vessels, or platelet count related to bleeding.
5. Which action demonstrates secondary prevention?
- A. Screening for early signs of disease
- B. Providing rehabilitation services
- C. Administering medications
- D. Providing health education
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Screening for early signs of disease. Secondary prevention involves activities that aim to detect health issues early to provide timely treatment. Screening for early signs of disease falls under secondary prevention as it helps identify diseases in their early stages, allowing for prompt intervention and management.
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