Nursing Elites

1. The nurse knows that all of the following are risk factors for breast cancer except:

• A. Family history
• B. Nulliparity
• C. Chest xray
• D. Multiple sex partners

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Multiple sex partners are not a recognized risk factor for breast cancer. Breast cancer is primarily influenced by hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors, not sexual activity or the number of sexual partners. Established risk factors for breast cancer include family history, hormonal factors such as early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity (having no children), as well as certain environmental exposures.

2. When working with clients experiencing alopecia, what is the best method for a nurse to help them manage the psychosocial impact of this issue?

• A. Assisting the client in pre-planning for this event.
• B. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary.
• C. Teaching the client ways to protect the scalp.
• D. Telling the client that there are worse side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

3. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

4. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia?

• A. Monitoring for infection
• B. Monitoring nutritional status
• C. Monitoring electrolyte levels
• D. Monitoring liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for infection. In patients with acute leukemia, the most common cause of death is usually infection or bleeding. By closely monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, altered mental status, or elevated white blood cell count, healthcare providers can intervene promptly. Monitoring nutritional status (choice B) is important but does not directly address the most common cause of death among leukemia patients. Monitoring electrolyte levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments in cancer patients; however, they are not the most direct assessment to address the leading cause of death in patients with leukemia.

5. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?

• A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
• B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
• C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
• D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.

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