Nursing Elites

1. The nurse knows that all of the following are risk factors for breast cancer except:

• A. Family history
• B. Nulliparity
• C. Chest xray
• D. Multiple sex partners

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Multiple sex partners are not a recognized risk factor for breast cancer. Breast cancer is primarily influenced by hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors, not sexual activity or the number of sexual partners. Established risk factors for breast cancer include family history, hormonal factors such as early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity (having no children), as well as certain environmental exposures.

2. An older adult patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). What assessment finding is certain to be present if the patient has CLL?

• A. Increased numbers of blast cells
• B. Increased lymphocyte levels
• C. Intractable bone pain
• D. Thrombocytopenia with no evidence of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increased lymphocyte count (lymphocytosis) is always present in patients with CLL.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, what intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
• B. Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
• C. Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day.
• D. Assign responsibility for the patient's nutrition to the patient's friends and family.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. Option A (TPN) and B (PEG tube placement) are more invasive interventions and should be considered if non-oral routes are necessary. Option D is not appropriate as the primary responsibility for a patient's nutrition should lie with healthcare professionals to ensure proper management and monitoring.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration, and the health care provider changes the client's diet from NPO status to clear liquids. The nurse should check which priority item before administering the diet?

• A. Bowel sounds
• B. Ability to ambulate
• C. Incision appearance
• D. Urine specific gravity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bowel sounds. Checking for bowel sounds is crucial before administering any diet to ensure the gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly following surgery. This assessment helps prevent complications such as paralytic ileus. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While the ability to ambulate, incision appearance, and urine specific gravity are important assessments, ensuring bowel function takes precedence in this postoperative scenario.

5. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

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