ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?
- A. Disease prophylaxis
- B. Risk reduction
- C. Secondary prevention
- D. Tertiary prevention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early-stage cancer in individuals who lack symptoms.
2. A clinic patient is being treated for polycythemia vera, and the nurse is providing health education. What practice should the nurse recommend to prevent the complications of this health problem?
- A. Avoiding natural sources of vitamin K
- B. Avoiding altitudes of 1500 feet (457 meters)
- C. Performing active range of motion exercises daily
- D. Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs. Patients with polycythemia vera are at risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), so it is essential to avoid tight and restrictive clothing that can impede circulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding natural sources of vitamin K, altitudes of 1500 feet, and performing active range of motion exercises are not directly related to preventing complications of polycythemia vera.
3. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?
- A. The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.
- B. The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia.
- C. The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia.
- D. The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.
4. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?
- A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
- B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
- C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
- D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.
5. A 50-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia will begin chemotherapy. What would the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy?
- A. Administer an antiemetic.
- B. Administer an antimetabolite.
- C. Administer a tumor antibiotic.
- D. Administer an anticoagulant.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically used to prevent or treat these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering an antimetabolite, a tumor antibiotic, or an anticoagulant would not directly address the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, which are nausea and vomiting.
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