ATI RN
ATI Oncology Quiz
1. A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?
- A. Disease prophylaxis
- B. Risk reduction
- C. Secondary prevention
- D. Tertiary prevention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection activities that seek to identify early-stage cancer in individuals who lack symptoms.
2. When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, what action should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Adjust the dose based on the patient's present symptoms.
- B. Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser before and after administration.
- C. Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing and administering the medication.
- D. Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle. Antineoplastic agents are hazardous materials, and proper disposal is crucial to prevent harm to individuals and the environment. Option A is incorrect because adjusting the dose based on the patient's present symptoms may not be safe without proper authorization. Option B is incorrect as hand hygiene should be performed both before and after administering medications. Option C is incorrect as gloves and a lab coat should be worn primarily during handling and administration, not just during preparation.
3. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
- A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Continue to monitor the client
- D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
4. A client with long-standing heart failure being treated for cancer has received a dose of ondansetron for nausea. What action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Assess the client for a headache or dizziness.
- B. Request a prescription for cardiac monitoring.
- C. Instruct the client to change positions slowly.
- D. Weigh the client daily before eating.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ondansetron can prolong the QT interval, making cardiac monitoring essential in this scenario.
5. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
- B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
- C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
- D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.
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